Ultimately, my question is: does the following theorem hold?
Let $I_1, ..., I_n$ be ideals of some ring $R$, with $R = I_i + I_j$ for $1 \leq i < j \leq n$.
Then for any $r_1, ..., r_n \in R$ there exists $x \in R$ such that: $$\begin{align*} x &\equiv r_1 \pmod{ I_1 }\\ &\vdots \\ x &\equiv r_n \pmod{ I_n} \end{align*} $$
It's easy enough to show if two such solutions $x$ and $x'$ exist, then $x' \equiv x \pmod{I_1 \cap ... \cap I_n}$.
Moreover, this shows the ring homomorphism $\phi: R \rightarrow R / I_1 \times \cdots \times R / I_n$, given by $r \mapsto \left ( r + I_1, \ldots, r + I_n \right )$ is surjective.
Hence, with $\ker(\phi) = I_1 \cap \cdots \cap I_n$, the first isomorphism theorem tells us:
$$ R / \left ( I_1 \cap \cdots \cap I_n \right ) \cong R / I_1 \times \cdots \times R / I_n$$
A few more comments about this question:
- Theorem 1.11 of these lecture notes gives a sketch proof with the added condition $R^2 + I_i = R$ for $i = 1, ..., n$.
If $R$ contains a multiplicative identity, then $R^2 = R$, and our requirement immediately holds. Is this added condition necessary for $n > 2$? - Judson's Abstract Algebra textbook poses the $n=2$ case as an exercise with no added assumption about multiplicative identities etc... which is answered in this question.