I have this old (1991) contest math problem I am stuck on. The problem is:
Let $f(x)$ be a function such that $f(1)=1$ and, for $x\geq 1 $
$$ f'(x) = \frac{1}{x^2 + f^2(x)} $$
Prove that $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)$ exists, and is less than $1 + \frac{\pi}{4}$.
I tried a trig substitution approach (let $x=r\cos(\theta), y = r \sin(\theta)$), but I got stuck when I tried to do the change of variables. I also thought about calculating the general form for $f^n(x)$ and calculating the Taylor's series around $x=1$, but I got stuch around the 3rd derivative and couldn't see a way to come up with a general formula.
Any tips on making progress would be welcome! Thanks.