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Assume the initial condition is that a point mass starts at height $y_0$. After descending to height $y < y_0$, we know that its speed will be $v = \sqrt{2mg(y_0 - y)}$. Thus, the displacement element can be written as $$ds^2 = dx^2 + dy^2 = v^2 dt^2,$$ so that we have $$dt^2 = \frac{1}{2mg(y_0 - y)} (dx^2 + dy^2).$$ We are trying to minimize the functional $\int \sqrt{dt^2}$. This looks just like the geodesic problem (from general relativity) where the metric is $$g_{\mu \nu} = \frac{1}{2mg}\begin{pmatrix} \frac{1}{y_0 - y} & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{1}{y_0 - y}\end{pmatrix}.$$ The geodesic equation reads, $$\frac{d^2 x^\mu}{dt^2} + \frac{1}{2}\Gamma^{\mu}_{\alpha\beta} \frac{dx^\alpha}{dt} \frac{dx^\beta}{dt} = 0.$$

I believe that with this metric, we have the Christoffel symbols $$\Gamma^x_{xy} = \Gamma^x_{yx} = \frac{1}{2(y_0-y)}$$ $$\Gamma^y_{yy} = \frac{1}{2(y_0-y)}$$ $$\Gamma^y_{xx} = \frac{-1}{2(y_0-y)}$$ (note the negative sign)

and all else are zero.

This would give the equations $$\frac{d^2 x}{dt^2} + \frac{1}{2(y_0-y)}\frac{dx}{dt}\frac{dy}{dt} = 0$$

$$\frac{d^2 y}{dt^2} + \frac{1}{2(y_0-y)}\left(\frac{dy}{dt}\right)^2 - \frac{1}{2(y_0-y)}\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)^2= 0.$$

Is this all correct so far, and can this be continued into a useful solution to the problem? I am also concerned that I might not have the right derivative in the geodesic equation - I think it should be derivatives with respect to $t$ but I could imagine being wrong and it should be with $s$, related by $$ds = vdt \implies \frac{d}{dt} = v \frac{d}{ds}.$$

Qmechanic
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2 Answers2

2

TL;DR: Yes, the geodesic equation can be used to solve the Brachistochrone Problem.

  1. First of all, let's pick a new coordinate system where the $y$-axis points downwards, and the point mass starts at $y=0$.

  2. We start with the standard 2D Euclidean metric/arclength $$(ds)^2~=~(dx)^2+(dy)^2.\tag{A}$$ We take the new metric/arclength as lapsed time $$ dt~=~\frac{ds}{v}~=~\sqrt{g_{ij}dx^idx^j}, \qquad v~=~\sqrt{2gy}.\tag{B}$$

  3. The lapsed time functional becomes the new arclength functional $$\Delta t~=~\int_{\lambda_i}^{\lambda_f}\! \mathrm{d}\lambda~L, \qquad L~=~\sqrt{L_0}, \tag{C}$$ where $$L_0~=~g_{ij}\dot{x}^i\dot{x}^j~=~\frac{\dot{x}^2+\dot{y}^2}{2gy} ~=~\dot{x}^2\frac{1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2}{2gy}, \qquad \dot{x}^i ~=~\frac{dx^i}{d\lambda},\tag{D} $$ where $\lambda$ is an arbitrary world-line (WL) parametrization. (The arclength functional (C) is WL reparametrization invariant.)

  4. We now use a computational trick to get rid of square roots. We may square the Lagrangian $L$, cf. e.g. this Math.SE post, i.e. find stationary curves for the functional $$ \int_{\lambda_i}^{\lambda_f}\! \mathrm{d}\lambda~L_0. \tag{E}$$ instead of the arclength functional (C).

  5. We next use Noether's theorem twice:

    • $x$ cyclic variable $\Rightarrow$ momentum $p_x~=~\frac{\partial L_0}{\partial\dot{x}}~=~\frac{\dot{x}}{gy}$ constant.

    • $L_0$ has no explicit $\lambda$-dependence $\Rightarrow$ Energy $E~=~p_x\dot{x}+p_y\dot{y}-L_0~=~L_0$ constant.

  6. The above 2 first integrals yield eq. (13) on the Wolfram page $$y\left(1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2\right) ~=~ k^2~=~\frac{2E}{p_x^2g}, \tag{13}$$ which in turn leads to the well-known cycloid solution.

Qmechanic
  • 13,259
  • This is the standard way of solving the B problem and of course works but I'm trying to do the geodesic equation already derived the way without the trick. – Faraz Masroor May 24 '22 at 16:05
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We know the solution for the brachistochrone problem is a cycloid and we have a simple parametric form for those; we can subtitute into the geodesic equation you wrote down to see if they are satisfied by the cycloid. If so, that establishes that the approach is valid.

To simplify the calculation, let's take $y_0 =0$, reverse gravity so that it is uniform but pointing upward, set $2g=1$, so the motion occur in the upper half plane (moving upward from the x-axis). One other minor detail: in deriving the equation, equating the kinetic and potential energy, the mass terms cancel and so with these conventions $v = \sqrt{y}$. Then the metric you are considering then takes the form $\frac{dx^2+dy^2}{y}$. To compute the equations of the geodesics we use the following formulas: \begin{align} [ij,k] &= \frac{1}{2}(\partial_i g_{jk} +\partial_j g_{ik} - \partial_kg_{ij}) \\ \Gamma^i_{jk} &= g^{il}[jk,l] \end{align} The equation for the geodesics are then: \begin{equation} \frac{d^2x^i}{dt^2} + \Gamma^i_{jk} \frac{dx^j}{dt}\frac{dx^k}{dt}= 0 \end{equation}

The parametric equations for the cycloid that solves the brachisochrone problem (with $r>0$ constant) are: \begin{align} x &=r(t-\sin(t)) & \dot{x} &= r(1-\cos(t)) & \ddot{x} &= r\sin(t)\\ y &=r(1-\cos(t)) & \dot{y} &= r\sin(t) & \ddot{y} &=r\cos(t) \end{align} Note that $\dot{x} = y$.

Specializing with coordinates $\{x,y\}$: \begin{align} \ddot{x} + \Gamma^x_{xx}\dot{x}^2 +2\Gamma^x_{xy}\dot{x}\dot{y} +\Gamma^x_{yy}\dot{y}^2 &= 0 \\ \ddot{y} + \Gamma^y_{xx}\dot{x}^2 +2\Gamma^y_{xy}\dot{x}\dot{y} +\Gamma^y_{yy}\dot{y}^2 &= 0 \end{align}

and for $g^{-1}=\begin{pmatrix} g^{xx} & g^{xy} \\ g^{yx} & g^{yy}\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} y & 0 \\ 0 & y \end{pmatrix}$

We get : \begin{align*} \Gamma^x_{xx} &= g^{xx}[xx,x] = 0 \\ \Gamma^x_{xy} &= g^{xx}[xy,x] = -1/2y \\ \Gamma^x_{yy} &= g^{xx}[yy,x] = 0 \end{align*}

Similarly we compute: \begin{align*} \Gamma^y_{xx} &= g^{yy}[xx,y] = 1/2y \\ \Gamma^y_{xy} &= g^{yy}[xy,y] = 0 \\ \Gamma^y_{yy} &= g^{yy}[yy,y] = -1/2y \end{align*}

(note the signs on the $\Gamma^y_{xx} \text{ and } \Gamma^y_{yy}$ are opposite yours)

This yields the two equations: \begin{align} \ddot{x} - \frac{1}{y}\dot{x}\dot{y} &= 0 & (1)\\ \ddot{y} + \frac{1}{2y} \dot{x}^2 - \frac{1}{2y}\dot{y}^2 &= 0 & (2) \end{align}

Eq (1) is easily seen to be true using the fact that $\dot{x} = y$ and (2) is also verified with some algebra. So I conclude that the approach works!

ahersh23
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  • I'm accepting this, but I'd like to see how, instead of just verifying that the standard Brach solution solves the diff eq's 1 and 2, do you have any way of solving 1 and 2 to derive the solution (if you didn't know it beforehand)? – Faraz Masroor May 24 '22 at 16:06
  • In general, the magnitude of the velocity vector is a constant for a geodesic. That will give you a first integral. For this case, use $\dot{x}^2+\dot{y}^2 = cy$ in eq(2) to get a ODE for y alone. Maybe with some effort you could push that through. – ahersh23 May 24 '22 at 16:36
  • Also cf Marsden,Ratiu, Mechanics and Symmetry, the Jacobi metric. One can transform many conservative force problems into free particle motions by changing the metric. – ahersh23 May 24 '22 at 16:46
  • This is a significant intellectual development - please add to your answer if you are able to :) – Faraz Masroor May 24 '22 at 18:14
  • This is a good place to start : https://mathoverflow.net/q/87709. It clearly states the conditions on the potential and the result. The proof in Marsden/Ratiu is not hard. Enjoy! – ahersh23 May 24 '22 at 20:22