Let's consider $a, b, \lambda_1, \lambda_2, ..., \lambda_n > 0$ and function:
$$f: [a, b] \ni x \rightarrow f(x) \in \mathbb R$$
formulated as:
$$f(x) = a_0 + a_1x^{\lambda_1} + \cdots + a_n x^{\lambda_n}$$
such that we have $(n+1)$ different points $\epsilon_1, \epsilon_2,...,\epsilon_n, \epsilon_{n + 1}$, $\;\epsilon_i \neq\epsilon_j,\; i\neq j$ for which we have that $f(\epsilon_i) = 0, \; i = 1,2,...,n + 1$. I want to prove that $f \equiv 0$.
My work so far
I wanted somehow to force $f$ to by polynomial by multiplying function $f(x)$ by another function $g(x)$ which will make function $f(x)g(x)$ polynomial of degree $(n - 1)$ with $n$ zeroes, and that would be sufficient to say that function $fg \equiv 0$ and by that function $f \equiv 0$. However, I don't think that such function $g$ exists - the problem are arbitrarily big $\lambda_i$. Could you please give me a hint how it should be proved?