Suppose $f:[0,1]\times[0,1]\to\Bbb R$ is R-integrable. Is it true that, for each $\alpha\in[0,1],$ at least one of the functions $x\mapsto f(x,\alpha)$ and $y\mapsto f(\alpha,y)$ has to be R-integrable?
I've seen an example of a non-R integrable function $f:[0,1]\times[0,1]\to\Bbb R,$ $$f(x,y)=\begin{cases}1,&x\in\Bbb Q\\ 2y,&x\notin\Bbb Q\end{cases}$$
In this example, $y\mapsto f(\alpha,y)$ is integrable, but $x\mapsto f(x,\alpha)$ fails to be $\forall\alpha\in[0,1]\setminus\left\{\frac12\right\}$ and so does $f$ over $[0,1]\times[0,1]$ as proven by RRL.
I tried building something from the answer in the thread, but I couldn't find any example of a function that isn't integrable "along any segment in $[0,1]\times[0,1].$ Does anyone have any suggestions?