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I am looking for the solutions of the trigonometric equation $$\cos(x) =\sin^4(x)$$

I tried this way: $$\begin{align} \cos(x) =\sin^4(x) &\iff \cos^2(x) =\sin^8(x) \\ &\iff 1-\sin^2(x) -\sin^8(x)=0 \\ &\iff 1-u-u^4=0 \end{align}$$ if I put $u=\sin^2(x)$.

Does this equation have solutions which can be explicitly written? I mean, no numerical methods or something like that.

There is an easier way to solve it (better than mine)?

Thank you.

Blue
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  • What makes you think that this problem has a simple solution? – José Carlos Santos Feb 10 '22 at 17:11
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    I don't think so... the only relation between $\cos$ and $\sin$ is $\cos^2 + \sin^2 =1$ so to solve any $f(\cos)=g(\sin)$ problem you'll need to use that identity and getting $1-u-u^4=0$ is about as clean as anyone could possibly hope for.... and of course you restrict $u$ to being within $1$ and $0$. – fleablood Feb 10 '22 at 17:25
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    There is a formula for solutions of 4th degree polynomials. It is a horrible huge mess and nobody uses it for numerical calculations. By trial and error there is a solution to $u^4+u=1$ with $0.7<u<0.75$ and an efficient approximation process such as Newton's Method will give an extremely precise approximation in a few steps. – DanielWainfleet Feb 10 '22 at 18:03
  • @DanielWainfleet thank you! –  Feb 10 '22 at 22:22

4 Answers4

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$\cos(x) = \sin^4 (x) = (\sin^2(x))^2 = (1 - \cos^2(x))^2 = 1 - 2 \cos^2(x) + \cos^4(x) $

Letting $u = \cos(x)$ , we now have the following quartic polynomial equation:

$u^4 - 2 u^2 - u + 1 = 0$

Being a quartic polynomial equation, it does have closed form solutions. For more details on how to find the roots of a quartic polynomial function, check this page. Since this is obviously complicated, you may resort to numerical methods such as the bisection method, or Newton's method (which is much faster). Once you find all the roots $u$ of the above polynomial, then select the ones that are real and having a magnitude that lies in $u \in [-1, 1]$, then the corresponding angle is $ x = \cos^{-1}(u) $.

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No, the quadratic equation is already simplified as you gave, which can be solved using numerical methods like Newton Raphson or any other standard numerical equation method. There are no more straightforward ways to solve the equation; you already used the standard trigonometric way, which is to convert cos(x) and sin(x) into the same trigonometric ratio. Although the solution can be analyzed using a graph.

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You can use the explicit formula for the roots of an equation of degree four. See this post, for example:

Is there a general formula for solving 4th degree equations (quartic)?

If you input the equation into Mathematica or Wolfram Alpha, it will give you explicit complicated formulas such as those.

Compacto
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Your solution is fine but you must take care that squaring introduce extra solutions.

For $x \in (0,2\pi)$, the original equation has two roots but after squaring two other appear.

In any manner, solving the quartic is possible but the result is awful (ask for the exact form).

Now, almost for the fun

By inspection, the solution is close to $x=\frac \pi 3$. What you can do is to expand $$f(x)=\cos(x)-\sin^4(x)$$ around this value to have $$f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n\,\left(x-\frac{\pi }{3}\right)^n$$ where the first coefficients are $$\left\{-\frac{1}{16},-\frac{5 \sqrt{3}}{4},-\frac{1}{4},\frac{13}{4 \sqrt{3}},\frac{25}{48},-\frac{29}{16 \sqrt{3}},-\frac{481}{1440},\frac{2113}{3360 \sqrt{3}},\frac{1613}{16128},-\frac{6605}{48384 \sqrt{3}},\cdots\right\}$$ Truncate to some order and then use series reversion to get $$x=\frac \pi 3-\sum_{n=1}^p b_n \,t^n\qquad \text{where} \qquad t=\frac{4 }{5 \sqrt{3}}\left(f(x)+\frac{1}{16}\right)$$ and we want $f(x)=0$.

The first $b_n$ are $$\left\{1,\frac{1}{5 \sqrt{3}},\frac{67}{75},\frac{139}{300 \sqrt{3}},\frac{41591}{22500},\frac{294541}{225000 \sqrt{3}},\frac{38163739}{7875000},\frac{182178917}{45000000 \sqrt{3}},\frac{1921145413}{135000000},\cdots\right\}$$ Using them, an approximation is $$x \sim \frac{\pi }{3}-\frac{1967557778378954379031}{39191040000000000000000 \sqrt{3}}=\color{red}{1.01821209908832}93$$ while the "exact" solution is $$x=\color{red}{1.0182120990883258}$$

Edit

Using twice more terms in the expansion, $$x \sim \frac{\pi }{3}-\frac{2295379042419019204745481645746329171766630434241}{45720787900170240000000000000000000000000000000000 \sqrt{3}}$$ showing an absolute error equal to $3.47\times 10^{-26}$.

  • Claude Leibovici, what a nice answer! Could you please explain why when you expand obtain $f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}\dots$? and what are the $b_n$? Thank you in advance! –  Feb 11 '22 at 12:27
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    @User1010. The first one is the Taylor expansion of $f(x)$. In fact, it is possible to write the infinite series (withe a bunch of complex arguments). The second step is the reversion of the series (I made it nicer using $t$ as an intermediate variable and the $b_n$ are the coefficients of the inversed series. I shall try the same with more terms just to see how far we can go. Cheers :) – Claude Leibovici Feb 11 '22 at 12:50
  • Again, very nice answer, thank you! :) –  Feb 11 '22 at 15:08