If $p_\theta(x)$ can be reparameterized as $p(\epsilon)$, s.t. $x=g(\theta, \epsilon)$, why $\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} \int f(x) p_{\theta}(x)dx = \int p(\epsilon) \frac{\partial}{\partial x} f(x) \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} g(\theta, \epsilon) d\epsilon$?
It is a description in the eq. (3.5) of (https://mlg.eng.cam.ac.uk/yarin/thesis/thesis.pdf). I am reading the paper but poor in mathematic to figure out this equation. I will really appreciate it if anyone can give me some hints. :)