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I have just begun to touch on elementary number theory and one of the first practice problems we received is the following:

We say that an integer $d$ is a divisor of an integer $a$ if there is an integer $n$ such that $a = dn$; ie. if $a$ is an integer multiple of $d$. Write out a careful and complete proof of the following mathematical statement:

Whenever $d$ is a divisor of both $a$ and $b$ then $d^2$ is a divisor of $ab$.

I have managed to devise up this so far however I am not sure whether this is correct nor sufficient:

If $d \mid a$ and $d \mid b$, then there exists some integers $n$ and $m$ such that $a = dn$ and $b = dm$ respectively. Multiplying $a$ and $b$ we get:

$ab = (dn)(dm) = d^2nm$

meaning that $d^2$ must be a divisor of $ab$

This is my first time doing proofs such as this so I am shaky in this subject to say the least. I am wondering whether the proof above is sufficient, could be improved, or is possibly incorrect altogether. If any of that is the case any explanation as to how to properly formalize this proof would be greatly appreciated.

Bill Dubuque
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    It looks fine to me. – José Carlos Santos Jan 25 '22 at 21:27
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    It is exactly the same proof as in the duplicate, which is very good and has many upvotes. So yes, don't be shaky. It is the standard proof. Next time compare it here, and you will be less unsure. – Dietrich Burde Jan 25 '22 at 21:28
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    If everything you say is absolutely true and you get a result. Then your proof is good. And every single step of the way everything you said was absolutely true. So your proof is good. – fleablood Jan 26 '22 at 02:39

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