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I'm struggling with statements such as the following in Wikipedia:

"[In] dimensions smaller than 4, there is only one differential structure for each topological manifold.
That was proved by Tibor Radó for dimension 1 and 2, and by Edwin E. Moise in dimension 3."

This certainly seems a perfectly clear-cut, incontrovertible statement; and I certainly have neither intention nor expertise to argue against the mentioned proofs.

But still ... I wonder whether perhaps there might be certain exceptions or limitations which seem "so obvious, as to not even be worth mentioning" to anyone who'd competently make and agree with the above statement; perhaps considerations that "go without saying" by experts.

For example, there is certainly one caveat concerning distinction and counting of differential structures:
it's meant "only up to equivalence by diffeomorphism". (To put it simply ...)

Now, I do have a specific question (based on section Existence and uniqueness theorems of the same Wikipedia page) which is motivated by my suspicion of another ("unwritten") caveat to the statement quoted above:

For simplicity and concreteness, consider a $2$-dimensional topological manifold $(\mathcal S, \mathsf S)$ given in terms of $2$-dimensional topological space $\mathcal S$ and a (presumably unique) maximal topologically compatible atlas $\mathsf S$.

Included as a subset shall be one specific $2$-dimensional (maximal) $C^1$-atlas $\mathsf P^{(1)} \subset \mathsf S$ (which in turn, if I understand correctly, has as subsets some (non-zero) number of distinct but mutually diffeomorphic $2$-dimensional (maximal) $C^{\infty}$-atlases, $\mathsf A_j^{(\infty)} \subset \mathsf P^{(1)}$. Jointly they count as exactly one differential structure).

My question:

Does atlas $\mathsf S$ then also include (at least) one other specific $2$-dimensional (maximal) $C^1$-atlas $\mathsf Q^{(1)} \subset \mathsf S$, which is $\mathsf Q^{(1)} \ne \mathsf P^{(1)}$, such that overlapping charts of $\mathsf Q^{(1)}$ and $\mathsf P^{(1)}$ are not at each point of the respective overlap region differentiable wrt. each other (and where there exists at least one $2$-dimensional (maximal) $C^{\infty}$-atlas $\mathsf B^{(\infty)} \subset \mathsf Q^{(1)}$, which is $\mathsf B^{(\infty)} \not\subset \mathsf P^{(1)}$) ?

If so, are these two distinct (maximal) $C^1$-atlases $\mathsf P^{(1)}$ and $\mathsf Q^{(1)}$ indicative of corresponding two distinct differential structures being attached to the same one topological manifold $(\mathcal S, \mathsf S)$ ?

Thomas Andrews
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user12262
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    Any manifold has infinitely many different maximal atlas. The statement that you are reading about is saying that they are all diffeomorphic one to another. For example, $\mathbb R$ with is usual atlas and $\mathbb R$ with the atlas of compatible homeomorphisms with $t \mapsto t^3$ are different manifolds but they are diffeomorphic – Aitor Iribar Lopez Jan 13 '22 at 00:04
  • Aitor Iribar Lopez: "For example, $\mathbb R$ with is usual atlas and $\mathbb R$ with the atlas of compatible homeomorphisms with $t \rightarrow t^3$ [...]" -- Thanks for your comment and the relevant example. "are different manifolds" -- Are there two different topological manifolds ?? (If so: Shouldn't they fail to be homeomorphic at least in one point?) [contd.] – user12262 Jan 13 '22 at 00:35
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    sorry, I meant to say that they are different smooth manifolds with the same underlying topological manifold structure (ie the maximal atlas are different), but they are diffeomorphic to each other, using $t \to t^3$ as a diffeomorphism (note, the identity is not a diffeomorphism) – Aitor Iribar Lopez Jan 13 '22 at 00:40
  • @Aitor Iribar Lopez: "but they are diffeomorphic" -- Isn't the fact that $${{\frac{d}{dy}}\left[ , y^{\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)} , \right]}{(y = 0)} := \left(\frac{1}{3}\right) y^{\left(-\frac{2}{3}\right)}\mid{(y = 0)} := \text{undefined}$$ a failure of $t \leftrightarrow t^3 := y$ being a diffeomorphism, at point $t =0$, a.k.a. $y = t^3 = 0$ ? – user12262 Jan 13 '22 at 01:26
  • Upon further examination, you are asking a question, in the $C^1$-smooth category, that was discussed many times at MSE: Yes, every smoothable manifold $M$ admits two maximal $C^1$-smooth atlases $A_1, A_2$ such that $A_1\cup A_2$ is not a $C^1$-smooth atlas. But the uniqueness result that Wikipedia is talking about, is that the manifolds $(M,A_1), (M,A_2)$ are $C^1$-diffeomorphic to each other provided that $\dim(M)\le 3$. Just the diffeomorphism is not going to be the identity map. Possibly, what you really want to know is: Does every $C^1$-atlas contain a $C^\infty$-subatlas? – Moishe Kohan Jan 13 '22 at 01:34
  • See my answer here for the construction of such atlases $A_1, A_2$. – Moishe Kohan Jan 13 '22 at 01:36
  • @Moishe Kohan: "Every smooth (of the given degree of smoothness) atlas on the given topological manifold is contained in a unique maximal smooth atlas." -- The point is: "unique" in which sense? I'd agree to (a): Each atlas of smoothness $k$ on the given TopMan is contained in exactly one maximal atlas of smoothness $k$. And to: (b): Each maximal atlas of smoothness $k + x \gt k$ on the given TopMan is contained in exactly one maximal atlas of smoothness $k$. But I question: (c): For each $k \ge 1$ there is exactly only one maximum atlas of smoothness $k$ on the given TopMan. – user12262 Jan 13 '22 at 01:46
  • @Moishe Kohan: "Yes, every smoothable M admits two [...]" -- That seems (as if it could be made into) an answer to my question. Great! (Has it perhaps been worked out elsewhere already?) "But the uniqueness result [in] Wikipedia" -- Well, that section was to me only an inspiration and source of terminology. (My fault, sorry!) "that the manifolds [...] are $C^1$ diffeomorphic provided [...]" -- I don't see that. Is $t \leftrightarrow t^3$ a diffeomorphism ?? "Just the diffeomorphism is not going to be the identity map." -- Fine, $t \leftrightarrow t^3$ isn't $I$. What's the relevance?? – user12262 Jan 13 '22 at 02:04
  • @user12262: Yes, unique in the sense of (a) and (b); claim (c) is plain false and I did not make it. Take a look at my answer to another question in the link that I provided above, concerning existence of such atlases $A_1, A_2$ on every manifold of positive dimension. The statement that you say you "do not see" is precisely the one in the Wikipedia link. Are you asking for a proof? As for the map $t\mapsto t^3$, the answer "it depends on the smooth atlases on the domain and the range of the map". It is not even a $C^1$-diffeomorphism if you use the standard one on ${\mathbb R}$ for both. – Moishe Kohan Jan 13 '22 at 09:00
  • @Moishe Kohan: "Take a look at my answer https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4345514/277973 " -- Right, thanks. (Thereby I also found https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1453939/277973 ...) This answers my first specific question. For short: It's easy to produce (plenty of mutually) inequivalent atlases. Further: I apologize for my hang-up regarding the diffeomorphisms. (It took me a while to grasp that you, Aitor Iribar Lopez and the Wikipedia section were looking at maps $X \leftrightarrow X$, instead coordinate transformations like $\psi \circ \phi^{-1}$ which I encounter more often.) [contd.] – user12262 Jan 13 '22 at 18:04
  • I now agree that the identity map you mentioned, $I : X \leftrightarrow X, x \mapsto x$, fails to be one of the sought diffeomorphisms; but I'd still have to work out a suitable example of even a general recipe. Regarding my second specific question, it's just a fact that the technical definition of "differential structure" deals with these inequivalent atlases as it does. (Hence the phrase "essential uniqueness".) I'm contemplating a follow-up question about the (in)compatibility of equivalence classes of curves (of the underlying TopMan) under assignments of different inequiv. atlases. – user12262 Jan 13 '22 at 18:05
  • I am not quite sure what the remaining question is, but my favorite definition of a $C^k$-smooth structure on a topological manifold is that of a maximal atlas with $C^k$-smooth transition maps. This takes care of the ambiguous word "equivalent" since the maximality condition ensures that two structures are "the same" if and only if the atlases are literally the same. Maybe this resolves your second question. – Moishe Kohan Jan 13 '22 at 19:09

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