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Say I have a d-dimensional SDE $$dX_t=\sigma(X_t) dW_t,$$ here $\sigma \in \mathbb{R}^{d\times d}$ and $W_t$ is a d-dimensional Brownian motion. After using Ito formula on the function $x\mapsto\|x\|^2$ and taking expectations ( $\mathbb{E}$ ), among other things, I have to deal with the following term

$$ 2\mathbb{E} \Big[\int_0^t \langle X_s,\sigma(X_s)dW_s \rangle \Big]. $$

Now when can I say this term is zero? Or can how can I use a Cauchy Schwarz inequality to start bounding this term, I want to bound it by terms like $\mathbb{E} \Big[\int_0^t \|X_s\|^2ds \Big] $, assume $\sigma$ is uniformly Lipschitz.

jay
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1 Answers1

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As mentioned in an answer here and in the blog here,

A sufficient condition for the integral $\int_0^t f(\omega, s)\, dB_s$ to be a martingale on $[0,T]$ is that

  1. $f(\omega,s)$ is adapted, measurable in s, and
  2. $\mathbb{E}\left(\int_0^T f^2(\omega,s)\,ds\right) < \infty$. In this case, indeed, $\mathsf{E} \left(\int_0^T f(\omega,s)\, dB_s\right)=0$.

So if those conditions are satisfied for the given $f,g$ (eg. the integrability condition), then yes.

If we don't have the integrability, that integral will not even be well-defined/finite and so we cannot compute its expectation. Also, by taking $f=x^{p}$ for some $0<p<1/2$, we then deal with rough-integrals.

Thomas Kojar
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