In Öksendal he defines the Ito integral for adapted processes, and everything works out smoothly. However, my professor tells me that in much of the standard litterature, e.g. Williams: Diffusions, Markov Processes and Martingales vol 2, the integral is only defined for predictable processes, a class strictly smaller than that of adapted processes. My question is then, why? What is the practical difference?
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"In order to define the stochastic integral with respect to general martingales [...] (possibly discontinuous, such as the compensated Poisson process), one has to select an even narrower class of integrands among the so-called predictable processes. "
Thanks!
– Severin Jan 06 '22 at 21:40