I am struggling with this exercise:
Let $G$ be a group of order $pq$, where $p > q$ and $p, q$ are primes.Prove that if $q|p−1$, then either $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{pq}$ or $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{p} \rtimes \mathbb{Z}_{q}$.
I already proved the case $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{pq}$. However, for the case $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{p} \rtimes \mathbb{Z}_{q}$, I don't understand what it is means. The semidirect product should be defined with a homomorphism $\phi : \mathbb{Z}_{q} \to \mathrm{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_{p})$ but the exercise doesn't give one. So I want to konw which of the following is true
- For all homomorphism $\phi : \mathbb{Z}_{q} \to \mathrm{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_{p})$, $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{p} \rtimes_{\phi} \mathbb{Z}_{q}$.
- There exist a homomorphism $\phi : \mathbb{Z}_{q} \to \mathrm{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_{p})$ such that $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{p} \rtimes_{\phi} \mathbb{Z}_{q}$.
If case 1 is true, could you please prove that? As $\phi$ is arbitrary, I don't know how to start.