8

I am having some confusion over the concept of covariant and contravariant vectors. Most text books on tensors define contravariant vectors/tensors as objects whose components vary inversely to the changes in its basis vectors. Most common example given is that of velocity.

Covariant vectors (or one-forms), on the other hand, are defined as entities that transform in the same way as the changes in their basis vectors, and a common example is gradient of some scalar field, like a temperature gradient.

But my understanding is that a vector is a vector. Intrinsically, it is neither covariant nor contravariant. It is the vector components that are either co or contra variants. If the vector is written in covariant bases, than its components are contravariant. If the same vector is written in contravariant bases, then its component becomes covariant.

As we can see, a vector can be written as
$$ \vec V \equiv v^ie_i \equiv v_ie^i $$

So, the same entity is both covariant and contravariant, depending on the basis vectors.

Intuitively also it makes sense. The velocity of an object can be expressed as n meters per second, (meaning the object travels n meters in a second), or as 1/n seconds per meter (meaning the object takes 1/n seconds to travel a meter). In the first way it will be a contravariant vector, and in the second way it will be covariant.

So, is my understanding correct, or are physical entities intrinsically covariant or contravariant?

zero_infinity
  • 106
  • 1
  • 1
  • 9
dionysus
  • 147

2 Answers2

9

You are right, an element $v$ of a vector space $V$ is a vector and nothing else. It does not make sense to call it covariant or contravariant if we only look at $V$.

However, the origin of these concepts is in physics. Physical entities $X$ like velocity, electric field, etc., are quantified by measurements which produce an $n$-tuple $(x_1,\ldots,x_n)$ of real numbers. For example, quantifying a velocity produces $3$-tuples. Each measurement is based on a measurement space in which we observe the entity and on a coordinate system on the measurement space (a $3$-dimensional spatial coordinate system or a $4$-dimensional time-spatial coordinate system or something more complicated) with respect to which we measure the components $x_i$ of the entity $X$. Usually one makes one measurement per coordinate direction.

That is, we have a measurement space $\mathbb R^n$ and describe $X$ by a measurement result which is an $n$-tuple $(x_1,\ldots,x_n) \in \mathbb R^n$. But we must be aware that the entity $X$ is not an element of the measurement space $\mathbb R^n$; it is an element of a state space $V$ which has the same dimension as the measurement space. Anyway, the state space $V$ is isomorphic to the measurement space $\mathbb R^n$, an isomorphism $\phi : V \to \mathbb R^n$ being determined by our measurements.

Let us emphasize again that $X$ is not the same as $\phi(X)$; the latter is just a measurement result. Obviously we may get different values $(x_1,\ldots,x_n)$ of our measurements if we use different coordinate systems, and this is the subtlety: The isomorphism $\phi$ depends on the chosen coordinate system $\mathfrak C$. Thus we obtain a whole family of isomorphisms $\phi_{\mathfrak C} : V \to \mathbb R^n$.

In the simplest case we consider coordinate systems having the same origin; we do not take into account translations or moving coordinate systems (as in special relativity). In other words, we have the measurement space $\mathbb R^n$ (e.g. three-dimensional space or four-dimensional space-time) in which our measurements are performed, and for each ordered base $\mathfrak B$ of $\mathbb R^n$ we get an associated isomorphism $\phi_{\mathfrak B} : V \to \mathbb R^n$.

Of course there must be a definite relationship between the quantifying tuples associated to different coordinate systems (resp. ordered bases), but it is a priori not clear what this relationship looks like and what its mathematical description is.

Although the elements of the state space $V$ are vectors and nothing else if we only look at $V$, they have additionally a certain relationship with the measurement space $\mathbb R^n$, described by the isomorphisms $\phi_{\mathfrak B}$. We must not forget this relationship.

What happens if we make a change of basis of the measurement space $\mathbb R^n$? Given ordered bases $\mathfrak B$ and $\mathfrak B'$, we get an automorphism $\phi_{\mathfrak B'} \circ \phi_{\mathfrak B}^{-1}$ on $\mathbb R^n$. As already mentioned, it is not a priori clear what this automorphism looks like, and the answer depends on the given physical entity. The most elementary two cases are that $\phi_{\mathfrak B'} \circ \phi_{\mathfrak B}^{-1}$ behave covariant or contravariant. This means that if $A$ is the matrix such that $b'_i = A b_i$, then $(\phi_{\mathfrak B'} \circ \phi_{\mathfrak B}^{-1})(x) = A x$ for all $x$ (covariant) or $(\phi_{\mathfrak B'} \circ \phi_{\mathfrak B}^{-1})(x) = (A^{-1})^T x$ for all $x$ (contravariant).

So you see that covariance and contravariance are not intrinsic properties of the vectors of the state space, but properties which become visible only if we consider the relationship between measurement space and state space. I think it was a great achievement to recognize that measurement space and state space need not be identical although they have the same dimension.

In the covariant case the state space $V$ can be identified naturally with the dual of the measurement space, in the the contravariant case it can be identified naturally with the measurement space itself (see Why is tensor from a vector space covariant, not contravariant?). But this is a purely mathematical point of view, not all physicists will perhaps be interested in these identifications.

Paul Frost
  • 87,968
  • Absolutely not. The difference between contravariant and covariant is essentially the difference between a vector space and its dual. They are different vector spaces which do not even have a canonical isomorphism; in infinite dimensions they may not even be isomorphic at all. The terms "contravariant" and "covariant" typically refer to the set of pairs of such vector spaces that are associated to every point of a differential manifold. The origin of these concepts is in differential geometry, not physics. – pglpm Jan 28 '24 at 14:44
  • Fantastic answer. – MoonKnight Jan 29 '24 at 22:39
4

A vector in contexts where co- and contravariant are used is not just any vector in $\mathbb R^n$. No, in this context, we're working on a manifold $M$, that is, roughly speaking, a smooth (hyper)surface. At each point $p$ of the surface we can construct a tangent (hyper)plane. This tangent plane is spanned by a set of tangent vectors, and these vectors together form the tangent space $T_pM$ to $M$ at $p$.

A vector is an element of such a tangent space. A covector, on the other hand, is an element of its dual space. Meaning that a covector is a linear map which sends vectors to real numbers. That's an entirely different object from a vector! Vectors aren't maps! At least not in this context.

Of course, using some linear algebra, we can construct covectors from vectors and vice versa. Given a vector $v$ and a scalar product $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle$, define the linear map $v^\ast: w\mapsto\langle v,w\rangle$. $v^\ast$ is a covector which in some sense corresponds to $v$, if we distinguish this chosen scalar product. In a similar way we can construct vectors from covectors. If you've come that far in your studies of physics: this scalar product is the metric $\eta$, which you use to lower or raise indices. This lowering and raising is just shorthand for the construction described above. Crucially, lowering and raising indices is not a change of basis, so it's not just a change of the vector components. It's the construction of a completely different object. If $v$ is a velocity, then $v^\ast$ is not! What's more, these two objects behave differently if we do actually change the coordinates. The vector varies contravariantly, meaning that if we change the coordinate system via applying the linear map $\Lambda$ to the basis vectors, then we need to apply the map $\Lambda^{-1}$ to the coordinate vector of $v$ in order to obtain the correct coordinates. A covector, however, requires that we apply $\Lambda$ to its coordinate vector in order to obtain the correct coordinates. That's what makes the difference between co- and contravariant vectors. They're different objects, which consequently behave differently under coordinate transformations. They are not just different representations of the same object. Physical quantities are intrinsically co- or contravariant, even though covariant quantities can be constructed from contravariant ones and vice versa. Velocities are always covariant. The object with lowered indices is not a velocity anymore.

  • Thanks Vercassivelaunos. Your answer was certainly helpful. It all is starting to make a lot of sense now. This line was crucial in clearing much confusion. "Crucially, lowering and raising indices is not a change of basis, so it's not just a change of the vector components. It's the construction of a completely different object." However, I have noticed that in the calculations, one can seamlessly interchange $$ v_ie^i with v^ie_i $$ without any penalty. Of course, an upping/lowering of indices with be required, but that seem to be a routine feature of tensor calculations. – dionysus Nov 07 '21 at 05:17
  • Yes, you can change between these two seemlessly, because both are the same object: a number! If $v^i$ and $e^i$ are vectors (or rather their components in a given basis), then $v_i$ is the map $w\mapsto\langle v,w\rangle=v_iw^i$, while $e_i$ is the map $w\mapsto\langle e,w\rangle=e_iw^i$. Combining, we get $v_ie^i=\langle v,e\rangle=\langle e,v\rangle=e_iv^i=v^ie_i$. So while both expressions work with different objects ($e$ and the dual of $v$, versus $v$ and the dual of $e$), they lead to the same scalar product. – Vercassivelaunos Nov 07 '21 at 09:03
  • As long as your pairing upholds $\varepsilon^j(e_h)=\delta^j_h$ and $e_h(\varepsilon^j)=\delta^j_h$ you are free to use the same space for the dual. Make sure you understand the setting you are working in. Also remember that a tensor can be viewed as a linear transformation from a Euclidean vector space E onto itself. For example: $A^i_j\varepsilon^ie_j\in \mathfrak{L}(E;E)≅(V⊗V^*)$ and so on. – ContraKinta Nov 07 '21 at 12:36
  • Thanks all folks. It's all very clear now. The concept of tangent space is critical in understanding the difference between vectors and covectors. I was erroneously thinking that they both live in the same tangent space, which was causing all the confusion. – dionysus Nov 08 '21 at 21:10
  • Also, I found the flaw in my own reasoning. "Motion" can certainly be quantified as "x seconds per meter", but this object is not velocity, simply because its unit is time/distance. Only an object with the unit of distance/time can be called velocity. An object with the unit of time/distance is a covector which lives in the dual space of velocity, a totally separate vector space. The metric g is what converts a velocity to co-velocity, and vice-versa. – dionysus Nov 08 '21 at 21:19
  • I am sorry but I got all muddy headed again. I think we are moving in circles. @Vercassivelaunos, you just said that "Yes, you can change between these two seemlessly, because both are the same object: a number!". So doesn't that imply that physical quantities are invariant. It's only the component of the physical quantities that are co or contra. After all, tensors are known to be invariants by definition, aren't they? Just to be clear, when I say "velocity", I mean the full combination $v^ie_i $, and not just the components $v^i$. – dionysus Dec 29 '21 at 04:54
  • Also, I quote from the book "Gravitation" by Misner, Thorne and Wheeler, page 59 -"A single physical quantity can be described equally well by a vector p, or by the corresponding 1-form $\tilde{p}$" – dionysus Dec 29 '21 at 05:12
  • I think the disconnect is between physical and mathematical perspectives. From the mathematical viewpoint, a vector is an element of a tangent space at a point on a manifold, while the 1-form is a member of the co-tangent space at that point. Since they are member of different sets, mathematician tend to view them different. But from the physics perspective, we are talking about an entity that would exists even if no tangent space or no basis vectors have been defined for it yet. – dionysus Dec 29 '21 at 05:20
  • You're getting into philosophical territory. Sure, the names co- and contravariant relate to the fact how the components vary after a change of basis. But we still call the objects themselves co- or contravariant, too. Even though the objects themselves stay the same (are "invariant", as you say it). I view that as a historical oddity, nothing more. – Vercassivelaunos Dec 29 '21 at 12:36
  • As for the difference between mathematical and physical perspectives, that's also kind of a philosophical thing. Is a velocity a specific mathematical object used to make predictions, or is it an aspect of reality which can be described in different ways mathematically? Answers may vary. I find the former easier to deal with. Miner, Thorne and Wheeler seem to prefer the latter. And I have no objections to that. – Vercassivelaunos Dec 29 '21 at 12:41
  • To this correct answer I'd like to add one example of the different mathematical properties of these two vector spaces on a differential manifold. A field of covariant vectors, usually called a "form", can be integrated over a curve, that is, it can be used to associate an invariant number to a given 1-dimensional curve in the manifold. This cannot be done with a field of contravariant vectors. – pglpm Jan 28 '24 at 14:47