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I am taking an introductory course in Hilbert spaces, and I am quite stuck with a certain idea...

Let $(H,<\cdot,\cdot >)$ be a preHilbert space (in other words, a $\mathbb{K}-$ vector space with an scalar product defined ($<\cdot,\cdot >$)). In my notes, it is stated that every preHilbert space could be completed... The definition that I am given is: $\hat{H}$ (being $\hat{H}$ a preHilbert space) is said to be a completion of $H$ if it exists a preHilbert subspace $K$ of $\hat{H}$ such that:

  • $K$ is isomorphic to $H$
  • $K$ is dense in $H$

Ok, so...,how to prove that every preHilbert space can in fact be completed? I tried to do the following... I know how to prove that every metric space can be completed $(X,d)$ (taking the set of Cauchy sucesions in it, and making the cocient set with the relation $\sim$ that relates sucesions in this way: $(a_{n})\sim (b_{n})$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $\lim_{n\to\infty} d(a_{n},b_{n})=0$, etc), so, I thought about taking the metric induced by the dot product in $H$ and doing the same proccess (being that metric $\overline{d}(x,y):=\sqrt{<x-y,x-y>}$). Nevertheless, what I would have when finishing (doing the proof that I already know about metric spaces) is that I have a $\hat{H}$ (being $\hat{H}$ a metric space) that has a metric subspace $K$ that is isomorphic to $H$ (in the sense of metrics), and dense in $H$. Nevertheless, How do I know that this ''completion'' is actually a preHilbert space? or even a vector space? I thought about trying, for the first question, to define a norm from the new distance, but we don't even know if, in this case, this is possible (or yes?)... I am lost, and I apologize for the inaccuracy and the possible ton of mistakes in here... Could someone give me an idea, some paper, or book, or something, that could help me clarifying this question? Why every preHilbert space can be completed? Thanks!

Theo Bendit
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    The space of equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences in a normed space is again a vector space. The norm induced by the metric can then be completed to a Banach space. By continuity the parallelogram identity still holds and thus thus the completion of a preHilbert space is a Hilbert space. – Severin Schraven Oct 15 '21 at 22:16
  • @SeverinSchraven What operation should I stablish between the equivalent classes in order to make the space a vector space? And how do I induce a norm with the metric in that space? Saying that, if $\hat{d}$ is the metric in the space of equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences, $\hat{d}([(a_{n})],0)$ is a norm in that space (proving then the properties of being a norm?) ? Thanks a lot for answering! – rubikman23 Oct 15 '21 at 22:26
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    You are looking at the space $$V:={ x=(x_n){n\geq 1} \subseteq X \ : \ x \text{ is Cauchy } }.$$ This forms a vector space with the usual addition and scalar multiplication (you only need to check that the sum of two Cauchy sequences form a Cauchy sequence and similar thing for scalar multiple of a Cauchy sequence). On that space you can define $$\Vert (x_n){n\geq 1} \Vert = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Vert x_n\Vert_X.$$ This does satisfy all the prooerties of a norm, except that also vanishes on certain sequences that are different from zero. – Severin Schraven Oct 15 '21 at 22:44
  • @SeverinSchraven , but the thing is to show that the cocient of that space $V$ with the relation listed above is a vector space, not $V$ no? – rubikman23 Oct 15 '21 at 22:49
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    Thus, we quotient those bad guys out. Namely, we define $\hat{X}=V/\text{~}$ with $$(x_n){n\geq 1} \text{~} (y_n){n\geq 1} \Leftrightarrow \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Vert x_n-y_n\Vert_X =0.$$ Then we can show that on this quotient the expression $$\Vert [(x_n){n\geq 1}]\Vert\hat{X}=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Vert x_n\Vert$$ does define a norm. However, this norm satisfies the paralellogram identity as $\Vert . \Vert_X$ does (as it is a preHilbert space). Thus $(\hat{X},\Vert . \Vert_\hat{X})$ forms a Banach space and the norm satisfies the paralellogram identity. – Severin Schraven Oct 15 '21 at 22:51
  • @SeverinSchraven now I'm seeing it! Nevertheless, the last thing that I am messing with is why $\hat{X}=X/\sim$ is actually a vector space... (I understand why the Cauchy sequences form one, but, how in this quotient space? Thanks again and sorry for asking so much! – rubikman23 Oct 15 '21 at 22:54
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    Note that $$W={ x\in V \ : \ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Vert x_n\Vert_X=0}$$ forms a subvector space of $V$. Then we can write (as vector spaces) $$V/\text{~} = V/W.$$ I.e. the usual quotient as vector spaces. And since the ancient days of linear algebra we know that this does form a vector space :) Otherwise you can just check by hand that addition and scalar multiplication work out under that quotient. – Severin Schraven Oct 15 '21 at 22:59
  • @SeverinSchraven Everything clear now, thanks for the helpful ideas! – rubikman23 Oct 15 '21 at 23:03
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    Glad I could help :) – Severin Schraven Oct 15 '21 at 23:06

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The completion of a normed linear space is a Banach space, and similarly inner product spaces (pre-Hilbert spaces) complete to Hilbert spaces. The key to this is the following important fact about completions:

Suppose $(M_1, d_1)$ and $(M_2, d_2)$ are metric spaces, with completion $(\overline{M}_1, \overline{d}_1)$ and $(\overline{M}_2, \overline{d}_2)$ (see footnote). If $f : M_1 \to M_2$ is a uniformly continuous function, then there exists a unique continuous extension $\overline{f} : \overline{M}_1 \to \overline{M}_2$ of $f$.

Let's assume this fact, because this answer will be sufficiently long, and see how we use it. Let's suppose that $X$ is a normed linear space. First, we need to establish vector addition and scalar multiplication on $\overline{X}$. The map $+ : X \times X \to X$ is uniformly continuous where $X \times X$ has the metric $$d((a, b), (c, d)) = \|a - c\| + \|b - d\|,$$ which is one of the infinitely many metrics that produce the product topology. To see this, note that $$\|+(a, b) - +(c, d)\| = \|a + b - c - d\| \le \|a - c\| + \|b - d\| = d((a, b), (c, d)).$$ Thus the $+$ map is non-expansive, and hence uniformly continuous. We can therefore extend it to a map $\oplus : \overline{X \times X} \to \overline{X}$ that is continuous. We also need to note the fact that $\overline{X \times X}$ is homeomorphic to $\overline{X} \times \overline{X}$ in the expected way.

We can also do something similar to the scalar multiplication map $\cdot : \Bbb{F} \times X \to X$ to produce a map $\odot : \Bbb{F} \times X$. Unfortunately, the original map is not quite uniformly continuous, but it is uniformly continuous on bounded sets, so we can just restrict to each bounded set, and complete the map on each such set. Because $\Bbb{F} \times X$ is connected, the completion is unique, and Cauchy sequences representing points in $\overline{X}$ can be assumed to be as bounded as you like, the argument still carries through, and we do still get a unique continuous map $\odot$.

These functions are addition and scalar multiplication operations on $\overline{X}$, and satisfy the various axioms of vector spaces, which you can prove by continuity. For example, consider the distributive law: $$a \odot (x \oplus y) = a \odot x \oplus a \odot y.$$ We may choose $x_n \to x$ and $y_n \to y$ where $x_n, y_n \in X$, and using the corresponding property in $X$, $$a \cdot (x_n + y_n) = a \cdot x_n + a \cdot y_n$$ for all $n$. We can write this in $\overline{X}$, remembering that $x_n, y_n \in X \subseteq \overline{X}$, so $$a \odot (x_n \oplus y_n) = a \odot x_n \oplus a \odot y_n.$$ Since $\odot$ and $\oplus$ are continuous, we can take the limit of both sides with respect to $n \to \infty$, and the distributive law is proven. You can probably appreciate how most other axioms follow in this vein.

The additive identity will just be $0 \in X \subseteq \overline{X}$. Additive inverses are similarly easy: $-[(x_n)] := [(-x_n)]$. Closure under addition and scalar multiplication, if your personal definition of vector spaces explicitly includes such a thing, are guaranteed by the codomains of $\oplus$ and $\odot$.

So, with a lot of work, we can show $\overline{X}$ is at least a vector space. To show its a Banach space, you can extend $\|\cdot\|$ in the same way. You can then show the axioms of a norm using continuity as before, and then show that it agrees with the metric on $\overline{X}$. This shows that $\overline{X}$ is a normed linear space, and because of the final point, $\overline{X}$ is complete under this norm.

To get the final claim, you guessed it, we complete the inner product map $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle : X \times X \to \Bbb{F}$. Like the scalar multiplication, this is uniformly continuous on bounded sets, but not uniformly continuous otherwise. One can show that the axioms of an inner product still hold, and that its relationship to the previously constructed norm still hold, by continuity.

There's a lot to prove here, but I think you have enough to point you in the right direction.

Theo Bendit
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  • Firstly, thanks a lot! I am going slowly through all of it. Some things...$(\overline{M}{1},\overline{d}{1})$ is formed by taking $(M_{1},d_{1})$ and applying the constructive proof of completeness of a metric space that I wrote earlier? And can you give me any reference for the proof of that theorem that you stated? – rubikman23 Oct 15 '21 at 23:19
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    The theorem follows from this one https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/245237/extension-of-a-uniformly-continuous-function-between-metric-spaces Simply note that $M_1$ is dense in its completion. – Severin Schraven Oct 16 '21 at 16:01