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Let $g$ be a nonnegative function.

We are given $\sum_{y \leq n \leq x} f(n) = F(x) - F(y) + O(g(x)+ g(y))$.

I am wondering if the following is equivalent, and if so how to prove it:

$\sum_{y \leq n \leq x} f(n) = F(x) - F(y) + O(g(x))+ O(g(y))$.

One thing thats confusing me is if I write $h = O(g(x)+ g(y))$, then should the argument of $h$ be $x$ or $y$ or both $x$ and $y$ as in $h(x,y)$ or a new variable entirely?

In any case $h \leq C(g(x) + g(y))$ for some constant $C$ and all sufficiently large values of the parameter(s) of $h$. This is equivalent to $h \leq Cg(x) + Cg(y) = O(g(x)) + O(g(y)).$

Conversely if $h(x) = O(g(x))$ and $k(y) = O(g(y))$, then $h(x) + k(y) \leq Cg(x) + Dg(y) \leq E(g(x) + g(y))$ where $E \geq C,D$. And so $h(x) + k(y) = O(g(x) + g(y)$.

Is this a correct argument showing $O(g(x)+ g(y))$ the same thing as $O(g(x))+ O(g(y))$?

trynalearn
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  • I think the rule you suggest is correct. See for example https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/324200/big-o-notation-sum-rule https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3719963/565071 – Steffen Plunder Aug 14 '21 at 22:34

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