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Ok, let me start by saying that I have seen this post and the one linked within, but they are quite old and didn't really answer my problem... I have read before that, in such a case, the standard guideline is to create a new question, which is what prompted me to write this inquiry.

The problem in question is as follows:

Given a finitely generated group $G$, prove that, for any $m \in \mathbb{N}$, there are finitely many subgroups of index $m$ in $G$.


My attempt

Let $H \leq G$ such that $[G:H] = m \in \mathbb{N}$, meaning $\mathcal{P}(G/H) \simeq S_m$, where $\mathcal{P}(G/H)$ denotes the permutations of the set $G/H$.

Let's define a homomorphism $$\begin{align}\varphi_H: G \to S_m \\ a \mapsto p_{a, H}\end{align}$$ where $$\begin{align}p_{a,H}: G/H \to G/H \\ gH \mapsto (ag)H\end{align}$$

Now, let's consider the sets $A = \{H \leq G \mid [G:H] = m\}$ and $\{\varphi_H \mid H \in A\}$. We can then define a mapping $f$ in between them, such that $f(H) = \varphi_H$. If $\varphi_H = \varphi_L$, then their kernels are the same. But it is quite simple to check that the kernel of $\varphi_H$ is $H$, meaning $f$ is an injection.

This, in turn, implies that the number of subgroups of index $m$ in $G$ is bounded by the number of $\varphi_H$, which is bounded by the number of homomorphisms from $G$ to $S_m$. Since $G$ is finitely generated, this is at most $(m!)^r$, where $r$ denotes the number of generators of $G$. Hence, the number of subgroups of index $m$ is finite $\square$


Is the above correct? I ask because the aforementioned posts contained proofs which I thought were fine, but which seemed to contain problems, and the sheer amount of mappings interacting in my proof made me a little confused... In case of a mistake, could you please point out where and why?

Thanks in advance!


EDIT: Attempt 2

After reading the comments and giving more thought, I decided to try a different approach. Let's first recall that every subgroup of index $m$ in $G$ induces a homomorphism $G \to S_m$, such that its kernel is contained in said subgroup, using the ideas of my previous attempt. (I don't think I have to fix the isomorphism in this case, because even if $H$ induces plenty of homomorphisms, it does not change the general argument anymore).

However, we can now use that, if we call the homomorphism induced by $H \leq G$ by $\alpha_H$, then $H$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $G/\ker(\alpha_H)$, due to the Correspondence Theorem.

Ergo, the number of such subgroups is bounded by $\sum s(h)$, where $h$ runs through all homomorphisms from $G$ to $S_m$ (finite) and $s(\phi)$ is the number of subgroups of $G/\ker(\phi)$ (finite, because it's bounded by the number of subsets of the finite set $G/\ker(\phi)$). Thus, the sum is finite and we have the result $\square$

Is this attempt better? Or is there some other problem still lingering around?

Gauss
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    The kernel of $\varphi_H$ is $H$ only when $H$ is normal. Otherwise it's what is known as the core of $H$, which is the maximal normal subgroup contained in $H$. – Mor A. Aug 06 '21 at 13:27
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    One issue is that you need to specify (fix) the isomorphism between $\mathcal P(G/H)$ and $S_m$ (or, better yet, a bijection between $G/H$ and ${1,2,\ldots,n}$). Otherwise, your $\varphi_H$ is not well-defined. But then there is another problem in that there is no obvious way to compare $\varphi_H$ and $\varphi_L$. A possible solution would be to only define $\varphi_H$ up to a permutation. – tomasz Aug 06 '21 at 13:27
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    @Gauss: You put $g^{-1}$ on the wrong side of $ag$. – tomasz Aug 06 '21 at 13:32
  • @tomasz Can't I just change the counter-domain of $\varphi_H$ to $\mathcal{P}(G/H)$? – Gauss Aug 06 '21 at 13:32
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    @Gauss: No, because $\mathcal P(G/H)\neq \mathcal P(G/L)$ when $H\neq L$. That is to say, it would make $\varphi_H$ well-defined, but it would not make sense with what you are trying to argue further on. – tomasz Aug 06 '21 at 13:33
  • @tomasz My god, such a silly mistake... thanks! As per the permutations, I think I see what you mean - if I switch to $\mathcal{P}(G/H)$, then I can't compare $\varphi_H$ and $\varphi_L$, because they would have different codomains. Is that it? – Gauss Aug 06 '21 at 13:33

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