Prove the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n^2{a_n}}{(a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_n)^{2}}$ converges given $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{a_n}$ convereges, $\forall a_n > 0$
This is a question that a friend of mine has studied throughout the last semester and failed to solve. I think he would like to figure out this question but needs some hints.