I was working on a homework, and my first attempt get me to a deadend, but I was eventually able to solve it using a different method. But the fail attempt make me curious, and I wonder if it could have been fixed at all.
So I got 2 topological space $X$ and $Y$ with their first fundamental group being $G=\pi_{1}(X)$ and $H=\pi_{1}(Y)$. Additionally, there exist a continuous function from $X$ onto $Y$ and a continuous function from $Y$ onto $X$ (they are not necessary inverse of each other, and whether they are one-to-one is not known). These induce a homomorphism from $G$ into $H$ and a homomorphism from $H$ into $G$ (not known whether they are onto or not, or one-to-one or not).
So my questions are, given that, can you conclude:
That $G\cong H$? If not, what is a counterexample?
That $X\cong Y$? If not, what is a counterexample?
If it is further known that both homomorphism are onto, can you then conclude that $G\cong H$? If not, what is a counterexample?
Thank you for your help.