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I'm trying to prove what the title says: There is no functor $F$ such that $G \mapsto \operatorname{Aut}(G)$. I know that there is an equivalent question: Taking the automorphism group of a group is not functorial. but I really don't understand the proof, and the author's answer was last seen several years ago. Do you have another proof, or could you give me a little explanation of that?

Shaun
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John Mars
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If there is such a functor $F$, then for every sequence of group homomorphisms $$G_1\ \stackrel{f}{\longrightarrow}\ G_2\ \stackrel{g}{\longrightarrow}\ G_3,$$ we get another sequence of group homomorphisms $$\operatorname{Aut}G_1\ \stackrel{F(f)}{\longrightarrow}\ \operatorname{Aut}G_2\ \stackrel{F(g)}{\longrightarrow}\ \operatorname{Aut}G_3,$$ where $F(g)\circ F(f)=F(g\circ f)$ because $F$ is a functor. Also $F(\operatorname{id}_G)=\operatorname{id}_{\operatorname{Aut}G}$ for every group $G$ because $F$ is a functor.

In particular, it follows that if $G_3=G_1$ and $g\circ f=\operatorname{id}_{G_1}$, then also $F(g\circ f)=\operatorname{id}_{\operatorname{Aut}G_1}$. So we could prove that no such functor exists if we can find explicit groups $G_1$ and $G_2$ with explicit group homomorphisms $$G_1\ \stackrel{f}{\longrightarrow}\ G_2\ \stackrel{g}{\longrightarrow}\ G_1,$$ such that $g\circ f=\operatorname{id}_{G_1}$, but such that there exist no group homomorphisms $$\operatorname{Aut}G_1\ \stackrel{F(f)}{\longrightarrow}\ \operatorname{Aut}G_2\ \stackrel{F(g)}{\longrightarrow}\ \operatorname{Aut}G_1,$$ such that $F(g\circ f)=\operatorname{id}_{\operatorname{Aut}G_1}$. The answer to the question you link gives precisely such groups and homomorphisms.

Servaes
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  • what does $\operatorname{Aut}(i)(g_1)$ mean? – John Mars Mar 10 '21 at 22:47
  • @JohnMars I have no idea. Did I write that somewhere? (I'm on a phone, so reading/writing is hard) Seems like it should be $\operatorname{Aut}G_1$. – Servaes Mar 10 '21 at 22:52
  • the author wrote in his answer $\mathrm{ord}(Aut(i)(g_1))|\mathrm{ord}(g_1)=n, \mathrm{ord}(Aut(i)(g_1))|m$ – John Mars Mar 10 '21 at 22:53
  • Ah I see, you're reading the trash answer. It's quite worthless, don't bother trying to decipher it. There is nothing of value in it. I've downvoted it just now to make this clearer, feel free to do the same. – Servaes Mar 10 '21 at 22:55
  • @JohnMars Notation for functors is that you use the same letter for objects and for morphisms; above, Servaes uses $F(G)$ for the image of the group $G$ under the functor, and $F(f)$ for the image of the morphism $f$ under the functor. The author you are quoting is using $\mathrm{Aut}$ instead of $F$, so $\mathrm{Aut}(i)$ means "the image of the morphism $i$ under the (putative) functor $\mathrm{Aut}$". But that reply looks silly on first reading... – Arturo Magidin Mar 10 '21 at 22:56
  • Oh, ok. Thank you! It was really strange. – John Mars Mar 10 '21 at 22:56