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Let $N=q^k n^2$ be an odd perfect number with special prime $q$ satisfying $q \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(q,n)=1$.

Denote the abundancy index of the positive integer $x$ as $I(x)=\sigma(x)/x$ where $\sigma(x)=\sigma_1(x)$ is the classical sum of divisors of $x$. (For example, when $M$ is perfect, we have $\sigma(M)=2M$ and $I(M)=\sigma(M)/M=2$. The smallest example of an even perfect number is $6$. It is currently unknown if there are any odd perfect numbers.)

Fix a positive integer $a$.

We have $$k \leq a \iff I(q^k) \leq I(q^a) \iff \frac{2}{I(q^a)} \leq \frac{2}{I(q^k)}=I(n^2)$$ $$\iff I(q^k) \leq I(q^a) < \frac{2}{I(q^a)} \leq I(n^2),$$ since $$I(q^a) = \frac{q^{a+1} - 1}{q^a (q - 1)} < \frac{q}{q-1} \leq \frac{5}{4} < \sqrt{2}.$$ Therefore, we get $$k \leq a \iff \Bigg[I(q^k) - I(q^a)\Bigg]\Bigg[I(n^2) - I(q^a)\Bigg] \leq 0$$ $$\iff 2 + (I(q^a))^2 \leq I(q^a)\Bigg[I(q^k) + I(n^2)\Bigg].$$ We thus obtain the following proposition:

PROPOSITION If $N=q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $k \leq a$ holds if and only if $$I(q^a) + \frac{2}{I(q^a)} \leq I(q^k) + I(n^2).$$

ALTERNATIVE PROOF OF THE PROPOSITION Note that the same proposition can be proved by using the fact that $$f(k) = I(q^k) + I(n^2) = I(q^k) + \frac{2}{I(q^k)}$$ is a decreasing function of $k$. (See mathlove's answer to a closely related question.)

But $$I(q^a) + \frac{2}{I(q^a)} = \frac{q^{a+1} - 1}{q^a (q - 1)} + \frac{2q^a(q - 1)}{q^{a+1} - 1} = \frac{3q^{2a+2} - 4q^{2a+1} + 2q^{2a} - 2q^{a+1} + 1}{q^a (q - 1)(q^{a+1} - 1)},$$ whose partial fraction decomposition, per WolframAlpha, is $$\frac{2(q - 1)}{q(q^{a+1} - 1)} - \frac{1}{q^a (q - 1)} + \frac{3q^2 - 4q + 2}{q(q - 1)},$$ where of course $$\frac{3q^2 - 4q + 2}{q(q - 1)} < I(q^k) + I(n^2)$$ holds unconditionally (i.e. even if we do not have the condition $k \leq a$).

So here is my:

INITIAL QUESTION

Does the inequality $$\frac{2(q - 1)}{q(q^{a+1} - 1)} > \frac{1}{q^a (q - 1)}$$ hold for all special primes $q$?

MY ATTEMPT

Suppose to the contrary that there exists a special prime $q$ such that $$\frac{1}{q^a (q - 1)} \geq \frac{2(q - 1)}{q(q^{a+1} - 1)}.$$

This last inequality is equivalent to $$q^{a+2} - q \geq 2{q^a}(q - 1)^2 = 2{q^a}(q^2 - 2q + 1) = 2q^{a+2} - 4q^{a+1} + 2q^a$$ $$\iff 0 \geq q^{a+2} - 4q^{a+1} + 2q^a + q = q^{a+1} (q - 4) + 2q^a + q > 0,$$ which is a contradiction.

FINAL QUESTION

Does the contradiction suffice to prove that $k \leq a$?

  • I think that the answer to the final question is no. If you want to prove $A - B + C\leq D$, then $A\gt B$ and $C\lt D$ are not sufficient where $A= \dfrac{2(q - 1)}{q(q^{a+1} - 1)},B= \dfrac{1}{q^a (q - 1)},C= \dfrac{3q^2 - 4q + 2}{q(q - 1)}$ and $D= I(q^k) + I(n^2)$. – mathlove Mar 11 '21 at 11:33
  • Please write that out as an actual answer, @mathlove. – Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Mar 13 '21 at 04:41

1 Answers1

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I think that the answer to the final question is no.

If you want to prove $$A−B+C\le D$$ then $$A>B\qquad\text{and}\qquad C<D$$ are not sufficient where $$A=\frac{2(q−1)}{q(q^{a+1}−1)},\qquad B=\frac{1}{q^a(q−1)}, $$ $$C=\frac{3q^2−4q+2}{q(q−1)},\qquad D=I(q^k)+I(n^2)$$

mathlove
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