I'm wondering how to solve this. We have an infinite countable set A ⊂ R is such that λ * (A) =0, . I would appreciate any help. Thanks.
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And by the way, all countable sets have outer measure $0$ in Euclidean space. – Rushabh Mehta Mar 03 '21 at 17:19
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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Lebesgue (pronounced like Lebeg) was a French mathematician – J. W. Tanner Mar 03 '21 at 17:36
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Any countable set is measurable since it is a countable union of singletons, which are measurable.
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