In baby Rudin, Rudin stated the rank theorem below:
9.32 Theorem
Suppose $m, n, r$ are nonnegative integers s.t. $m\geq r$, $n\geq r$. Let $F$ be a $C^{1}$ mapping of an open set $E\subseteq \mathbb{R}^{n}$ into $\mathbb{R}^{m}$, and $F'(x)$ has rank $r$ for every $x\in E$.
Fix $a\in E$, put $A = F'(a)$, Let $Y_{1} = \mathop{\mathrm{Im}}A$, let $Y_{2}$ be a complement space of $Y_{1}$ in $\mathbb{R}^{m}$, and let $P$ be the projection $\mathbb{R}^{m} = Y_{1}\oplus Y_{2}\to Y_{1}$.
Then there are open sets $U$ and $V$ in $\mathbb{R}^{n}$, with $a\in U$, $U\subseteq E$ and there is a 1-1 mapping $H$ of $V$ onto $U$(whose inverse is also of class $C^{1}$) such that
$$ F(H(x)) = Ax + \varphi(Ax)\ (x\in V) $$ where $\varphi$ is a $C^{1}$ mapping of open set $A(V)\subseteq Y_{1}$ into $Y_{2}$.
My Question is:
It seems to be $A(V)$ is not open in $\mathbb{R}^{m}$. Therefore the definition of differentiation of $\varphi\colon A(V)\to Y_{2}$ seems to be nonsense, so is the definition of $C^{1}$-mapping. Is there any justification?