I don't understand why on the right-hand side we have $d\ln x$ and why the fraction disappeared. I have never seen this technique before. What is the logic behind this, I don't understand why the equivalence holds?
$$\int_{e}^{+\infty} \frac{(\ln x)^{-100}}{x}\, dx=\int_{e}^{+\infty}(\ln x)^{-100} \,d\ln x$$