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Let $S = k[x_1, \ldots, x_n, t]$ be the polynomial ring in $n+1$ variables over a field $k$ and let $R = k[x_1, \ldots, x_n]$. I have stumbled upon the following definition/result.

Let $\{f_1, \ldots, f_r \} \subset S$ be a set of homogeneous polynomials which have finitely many (projective) solutions over the algebraic closure of $k$, and let $J = \langle f_1, \ldots, f_r \rangle.$ Assume that $t \nmid 0$ mod $J$. The ideal \begin{equation} H = J + (t)/(t) \subset S/(t) \cong R \end{equation} is called an $\textbf{Artinian reduction}$ of $J$. In this case, we have $\mathrm{reg}_S(J) = \mathrm{reg}_{S/(t)}(H)$.

Now, the only result I know of that looks similar to this is the Independence Theorem of Local Cohomology (Thm. 13.1.6 in Brodmann & Sharps Local Cohomology)

Theorem: Let $S,R$ be graded rings , $I$ an ideal of $S$, $M$ a graded $R$-module and let $f: S \to R$ be a homogeneous homomorphism. Then $H_I^{i}(M) \cong H_{f(I)R}^{i}(M)$ for all $i \in \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}$

I tried to take $f:S \to S/(t)$ as the homomorphism setting $t = 0$ and applying the theorem above. But I don't see, how the conditions in the definition can be used to show the equality of regularity. What I was wondering, is, if the conditions in the definition of Artinian reduction are necessary for the result that $\mathrm{reg}_S(J) = \mathrm{reg}_{S/(t)}(H)$, or if this could be true for all modules $H$ of the form $H = J + (t)/(t) \subset S/(t)$?

Am I looking in the right direction with the independence theorem, or are there other results I'd have to consider?

user26857
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horus189
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  • What does $t\nmid 0\bmod J$ mean? – cqfd Dec 12 '20 at 18:27
  • I assume this means that $t$ is a nonzerodivisor on $S/J$, but it is not elaborated any further in the reference. – horus189 Dec 12 '20 at 19:36
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    With your observation, I think one can deducde the concludtion from the exact sequence $0 \to S/J (-1) \stackrel{\cdot t}{\to} S/J \to S/(J,h) \to 0.$ Also see Lemma (1.8) in Bayer Stillman (1987). – Youngsu Dec 13 '20 at 06:07
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    Also, I don't think it holds without the conditions. Please check the example of $J = (t^2)$. – Youngsu Dec 13 '20 at 06:09

1 Answers1

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Consider the exact sequences $$0\to J\to S\to S/J\to 0,$$ $$0\to\frac{J+(t)}{(t)}\to\frac{S}{(t)}\to \frac{S}{J+(t)}\to0,$$

and $$0\to \bar S(-1)\xrightarrow{t} \frac SJ\to\frac{S}{J+(t)}\to0,$$ where $\bar S=S/(J:t)$.

Since $t$ is a nonzerodivisor on $S/J$, $\bar S=S/(J:t)=S/J$. Furthermore, $S= k[x_1, \ldots, x_n,t]$, so every local cohomology of $S$ except the $n+1$-th one vanishes. Similarly, every local cohomology of $R=S/(t)$ except the $n$-th one vanishes. So for most values of $i$, we have the isomorphisms $$\newcommand{\m}{\mathfrak m}H^i_{\m}(S/J)\cong H^{i+1}_{\m}(J), \,H^i_{\m}(S/J+(t))\cong H^{i+1}_{\m}(J+(t)/(t)).$$ (I will use the same letter to denote the maximal homogeneous ideals. Thanks to the independence theorem, the distinction doesn't matter.) Moreover, from the third exact sequence, we get the corresponding long exact sequence of local cohomologies $$H^{i-1}_\m(S/J+(t))\to H^{i}_\m(S/J(-1))\to H^{i}_\m(S/J)\to H^{i}_\m(S/J+(t)).$$ Let $m\geq 0$ be an integer and assume that $J+(t)/(t)$ is $m$-regular. Then $H^{i}_{\m}(J+(t)/(t))_d=0$ for all $d\geq m-i+1$. So $$H^{i-1}_{\m}(S/J+(t))_d=0.$$ Since $d\geq m-(i+1)+1$, we also get $$H^i_{\m}(S/J+(t))_d\cong H^{i+1}_{\m}(J+(t)/(t))_d=0.$$ Then the long exact sequence yields an isomorphism $$H^{i}_\m(S/J(-1))_d=H^{i}_\m(S/J)_{d-1}\cong H^{i}_\m(S/J)_d.$$ But $H^{i}_\m(S/J)$ is Artinian, so $H^{i}_\m(S/J)_e=0$ for $e\gg 0$, so iterating the above isomorphism, we see that $H^{i}_\m(S/J)_{d-1}$ itself is $0$. This in turn implies that $H^{i+1}_{\m}(J)_{d-1}=0$ for all $d-1\geq m-i$.

To conclude that $J$ is $m$-regular, we still have to prove the cases that are left out. I hope the reader can take it from here (see here for some details). Finally, one has to prove the converse as well, i.e., $J$ is $m$-regular implies $J+(t)/(t)$ is $m$-regular. A similar argument should work.

cqfd
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  • That seems to work. Thank you for the detailed answer. Just another quick question: Did you use the fact that ${ f_1, \ldots, f_r }$ have finitely many projective solutions somewhere? I probably have overlooked it. – horus189 Dec 14 '20 at 08:37
  • @horus189 I didn't. The only fact that I have used is that $t $ is a nonzerodivisor on $S/J $. I don't think $f_i$s play any direct role, but don't take my word for it :) – cqfd Dec 14 '20 at 09:01