I ve been assigned the following problem:
How can we prove by induction that for every $x,y > 0$ and $n \in N$ it is true that: $$\frac{x^n+y^n}{2} \geq \bigg(\frac{x+y}{2}\bigg)^n$$
I have established a base of $n=1$ so that $\frac{x+y}{2} = \frac{x+y}{2}$ and have assumed that the statement is true for any natural $k$ but am having problem proving that it is true for $k+1$.
Any help is appreciated!