$$c\left(u_{1}, u_{2}\right)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho_{12}^{2}}} \exp \left\{-\frac{\rho_{12}^{2}\left(x_{1}^{2}+x_{2}^{2}\right)-2 \rho_{12} x_{1} x_{2}}{2\left(1-\rho_{12}^{2}\right)}\right\}$$
is the copula density of the Gaussian copula, which is an elliptical copula, where $\rho_{12}$ is the parameter of the copula, $x_{1}=\Phi^{-1}\left(u_{1}\right), x_{2}=$ $\Phi^{-1}\left(u_{2}\right)$ and $\Phi^{-1}(\cdot)$ is the inverse of the standard univariate Gaussian distribution function.
$$ c\left(u_{1}, u_{2}\right)=\left(1+\delta_{12}\right)\left(u_{1} \cdot u_{2}\right)^{-1-\delta_{12}} \times\left(u_{1}^{-\delta_{12}}+u_{2}^{-\delta_{12}}-1\right)^{-1 / \delta_{12}-2} $$ is the copula density of the Clayton copula, which is an Archimedean copula, where $0<\delta_{12}<\infty$ is a parameter controlling the dependence. Perfect dependence is obtained when $\delta_{12} \rightarrow \infty,$ while $\delta_{12} \rightarrow 0$ implies independence.
Question
As you can see the elliptical copula density, despite being a function of $x_1$ and $x_2$, has the actual random variables $u_1$ and $u_2$ on the right hand-side, whereas the Archimedean copula densities do not have $x_1$ and $x_2$ on the right hand side, but instead what we would expect from the function: $u_1$ and $u_2$. This property seems to be a shared between all elliptical versus Archimedean copula densities. Why?
Source of formulas: Aas et al 2009 "Pair-copula constructions of multiple dependence"