Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are continuous in $\mathbb{R}^n$. Then $$ \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(x)\phi(x)dx=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} g(x)\phi(x)dx, \forall\phi\in \mathcal{D}$$ implies that $f(x)=g(x),\forall x\in\mathbb{R}^n$.
All kinds of variants of this question have been asked on this site before, f.ex. If $f\in L^1(\mathbb{R})$ is such that $\int_{\mathbb{R}}f\phi=0$ for all continuous compactly supported $\phi$, then $f\equiv 0$. and If $f\in L^1_{loc}(\mathbb{R})$ and $\int f\varphi=0$ for all $\varphi$ continuous with compact support, then $f=0$ a.e. . But what about simply continuous functions $f$ and $g$? Every continuous function is locally integrable, so by the proof provided in the second link (generalized to $\mathbb{R}^n$), we would have that $f-g=0$ a.e. in $L^1$. How do I actually show that $f=g$ everywhere in $\mathbb{R}^n$?
Is there another way to prove this, without using local integrability?
Thanks.