My question is if, given $f(x)$, it's correct to write: $$\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x}$$ instead of $$\frac{d f(x)}{d x}.$$ Is it incorrect to use $\partial$ in one-variable expressions? Or it just doesn't really matter.
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Arctic Char
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Alejandro Bergasa Alonso
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2Is this useful https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/320228/the-notation-for-partial-derivatives?rq=1 ? – zkutch Oct 21 '20 at 22:47
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In general, we have the relation: $\frac{\mathrm d f(y)}{\mathrm d x} = \frac{\partial f(y)}{\partial y} \frac{\mathrm d y}{\mathrm d x}$.
For your setting, $y=x$, we get $\frac{\mathrm d x}{\mathrm d x} = 1$ which shows that both terms are the same: $\frac{\mathrm d f(x)}{\mathrm d x} = \frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x}$.
(Depending on the situation, you might want to use $\frac{\mathrm d f(x)}{\mathrm d x}$ or $\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x}$ to emphasize what this expression represents. If you just want the derivative of the function $f$, then $\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x}$ is probably more cannonical.)
Steffen Plunder
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