This question is about a variant of the topologist's sine curve. Similar questions have been asked many times in this forum. But strictly speaking, your question is not a duplicate.
Let $A_+ = \{ (x,y) \in (0,\infty) \times \mathbb{R}; y=\sin(\frac{1}{x})\}$ and $A_- = \{ (x,y) \in (-\infty,0) \times \mathbb{R}; y=\sin(\frac{1}{x})\}$. These are homeomorphic copies of $ (0,\infty)$ and $(-\infty,0)$, thus connected (they are even path connected). Since you solved 1., you will agree that $\overline{A_\pm} = A_\pm \cup \{0\} \times [-1,1]$. Now see the accepted answer to Topologist's sine curve is connected to understand that $\overline{A_\pm}$ are connected and hence also $\overline{A} = \overline{A_+} \cup \overline{A_-}$ is connected.
Why is $\overline{A}$ not path connected? Either you use the methods in the answers to e.g. Topologist's sine curve is not path-connected or Is this proof that the topologist's sine curve is not path connected valid, or you directly invoke the theorem that
$T = \{ (x,y) \in (0,1] \times \mathbb{R}; y=\sin(\frac{1}{x})\} \cup \{0\} \times [-1,1]$ is not path connected. In fact, if $\overline{A}$ were path connected, then also $T$ would be path connected because the map
$$r : \overline{A} \to T, r(x,y) = \begin{cases} (0,y) & x \le 0 \\ (x,y) & 0 \le x \le 1 \\ (1, \sin(1)) & x \ge 1\end{cases}$$
is a continuous surjection.