In completion to my question here:
Proving that $f^{-1} \in \operatorname{Hom}(Y,X).$
I know that: If $X,Y$ are groups and $f\in \operatorname{Hom}(X,Y)$ is bijective, then $f^{-1} \in \operatorname{Hom}(Y,X).$
My question is:
Why this statement is not correct in other categories than groups? could anyone help me answer this question, please?
In helping me answering my previous question @Tsemo in the previous question asked me that question:
how we define the fact that $Hom_{C}(X,Y)$ is bijective for category $C,$could you please help me in answering that question? I have no clear definition in my mind.
EDIT:
My confusion arises from the definition of Isomorphism that my professor gave to us, he said:
$f\in \operatorname{Hom}(X,Y)$ is as isomorphism if it is bijective and $f^{-1} \in \operatorname{Hom}(Y,X).$
He added that: in the category of groups $f\in \operatorname{Hom}(X,Y)$ is as isomorphism if it is bijective only.
This what confuses me, because I used to know that Isomorphism means homomorphism and bijection.