Let $R$ be a ring and $\mathfrak p \subset R$ a prime ideal. I think that it is easy to show that $\mathfrak p$ contains a minimal prime ideal of $R$, by the following argument: pass to the localization $\varphi : R \to R_\mathfrak p$, fetch a minimal prime $\mathfrak q \subset R_\mathfrak p$ and contract it back to $R$ to get a minimal prime $\varphi^{-1}(\mathfrak q) \subset \mathfrak p$. However, the commutative algebra wiki suggests that only in a Noetherian ring do prime ideals always contain a minimal prime.
Is there anything wrong with my reasoning, and, if so, what is it?