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We consider the torus as $X=\mathbb{T}^2$ where $\mathbb{T}=\{z\in \mathbb{C}: |z|=1\}$. Let $G=\mathbb{Z}_2$ act on $X$ by $1 \cdot (z,w)\mapsto (\bar{w}, \bar{z})$ and the identity map $0 \cdot (z, w)\mapsto (z,w)$. What is, up to homeomorphism, the quotient space $Y=X/G$?

Is it possible to deduce what this space is without using homology? I studied other cases where the action only reverses the coordinates (in that case $X/G$ is the Mobius strip) and where the action only conjugates the coordinates (in that case $X/G \cong [-1,1]^2$) but I am stumped on how to handle both at once. When dealing with just reversion, we could identify the torus as a square with appropriate sides glued and carry across the action to this space and figure out the resulting space after a little work. In the conjugate only case, we could find a direct mapping immediately and use the universal property of quotient maps. Now, a direct mapping does not seem possible here and I am unsure of how the conjugation part of the action carries over to the glued-square representation of $\mathbb{T}^2$. Any help or hint is appreciated (even one with homology as I am gradually studying introductions into the topic).

(I like to think about these problems as a refreshing break from probability theory but I am no topologist so I apologize if this is trivial).

Nap D. Lover
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2 Answers2

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We identify $\mathbb T^2$ as the quotient obtained from $[0,1]^2$ by identifying $(x,0)\sim (x,1)$ and $(0,y)\sim (1,y)$ for all $0\leq x,y\leq 1$. Under this homeomorphism, the equivalence class $[ (x,y)]$ maps to $(e^{2\pi i x}, e^{2\pi i y})\in \mathbb T^2$. So if we identify $(z,w)\sim (\bar w, \bar z)$ in $\mathbb T^2$, we are identifying $(x,y)\sim (1-y,1-x)$ in $[0,1]^2$ in addition to the previous identifications as well.

Now observe that $(x,y) \mapsto (1-y,1-x)$ is reflection about the line $X+Y=1$

So basically you take a square sheet of paper, fold it across the diagonal and paste it to get a right angled triangle. Now you have to glue the 2 right angled sides and the three vertices but the right angled sides you have to glue in the correct orientations. So you land up with a simplicial complex.

Here's a diagram. enter image description here

Using Van Kampen, we get $\pi_1(X/G)=\langle a, b | a^2b \rangle \cong \mathbb Z$ and hence $H_1 (X/G)= \mathbb Z$

user6
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  • This is what I could come up with. I will update this if I get any more insight. – user6 Aug 18 '20 at 23:18
  • +1 for an excellent outline of an answer. I wish I could award two bounties. Especially Van Kampen's theorem, I was not aware of such a theorem. I had computed $\pi_1(X/G)\cong \mathbb{Z}$ using Armstrong's theorem in a rather lengthy way. It's due time I get a proper textbook on these topics... – Nap D. Lover Aug 20 '20 at 00:38
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Option 1: Continue from where the other answer left off. Cut along the $x=y$ line, and reassemble gluing the two "a" arrows -- you get a picture of the Mobius band i.e. a square with (only) two opposite sides identified in opposite directions. This is basically identical with the answer to the "reverse coordinates" case you have linked.

Option 2: The fact that the two cases are identical can be argued directly: the automorphism (smooth map with smooth inverse) $\mu:T^2\to T^2$ $\mu(z,w)= (z,\bar{w})$ conjugates the two actions: the first one $q_1(z,w)=(w,z)$ and $q_2(z,w)=(\bar{w}, \bar{z})$ i.e. $q_1(\mu(z,w))=(\bar{w}, z)=\mu(q_2(z,w))$. This implies that the quotients are identified for general reasons: just send the class of any $p$ in $T^2/q_2$ to the class of $\mu(p)$ in $T^2/q_1$ (this is well-defined by "conjugation" equation above, and invertible by invertibility of $\mu$).

Option 3: You can show that the quotient is the Mobius band as follows:

Consider the map $\pi:T^2\to S^1$, $(z,w)\to z\bar{w}$. The points $(z, w)$ and $(\bar{w}, \bar{z})$ are mapped to the same image, so it descends to the quotient $X/G$. Parametrize the base $S^1$ as $\alpha=e^{i\theta}, \theta\in[0, 2\pi]$

Preimage of $\alpha$ under $\pi$ in the torus is a circle $(\alpha w, w)$, and it is cut by $p_1=(\sqrt{\alpha}, 1/\sqrt{\alpha})$ and $p_2=(-\sqrt{\alpha}, -1/\sqrt{\alpha})$ into two arcs each of which is a lift of the preimage of $\alpha$ in $X/G$. Thus $X/G$ is fibered over the circle with fibers being intervals. It is also reasonably clear that if we take $w=e^{i\phi}$ with $\phi \in [-\theta/2, \theta/2]$ as the lifting arc, then as one goes around the circle the endpoints of the preimage segment get switched, i.e. the fibration $\pi:X/G\to S^1$ is the one of the Mobius band.

The case where $G$ acts by $(z,w)\to(w,z)$ instead is handled the same way, by taking the map $\pi(z,w)=zw$ (note that these maps are also "conjugate" by $\mu$).

Max
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  • Thank you for providing multiple perspectives. This will give me plenty to study on my own. Option 2 and 3 are especially fascinating to me. Are these standard techniques found in e.g. Munkres or Hatcher? – Nap D. Lover Aug 20 '20 at 00:43
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    Are these standard techniques found in e.g. Munkres or Hatcher? -- It's been a while since I reread Munkres or Hatcher in their entirety. "Conjugation" is a basic idea in dynamical systems, and fibre bundles are common in differential geometry (standard book is Husemöller), though the present use is quite elementary. On the other hand, if instead of T^2 you mapped C^2 by (z,w)\to zw you would have a basic model of a Lefschetz fibration.

    – Max Aug 20 '20 at 06:44