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Let $(X, \tau_1)$ and $(Y, \tau_2)$ be topological spaces. Is it true that if $X$ is homeomoprhic to a subset of $Y$ and $Y$ is homeomorphic to a subset of $X$ then $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic spaces?

I'm trying to find a counter-example cause I don't believe that the statement is correct, however I'm struggling since I don't know that many homeomorphisms. An idea I had is to prove that a subset of $\mathbb{R}$ is homeomorphic to a subset of $\mathbb{R^2}$ and the other way around but $\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R^2}$ are not homeomorphic.

DreaDk
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2 Answers2

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$\;[0.2,\,0.7]\subseteq (0,1)=:X\;$ is homemomorphic to $\;Y:=[0,1]\;$ , and $\;(0.2,\,0.7)\subseteq Y\;$ is homeomorphic to $\;X\;$ , but ...

Brian M. Scott
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DonAntonio
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It is even possible to find a compact Hausdorff space $X$ with the following property, though the example is a bit complicated:

If $Y$ is the space obtained from $X$ by adding a single isolated point, then $X$ and $Y$ are not homeomorphic, $X$ is homeomorphic to a subset of $Y$, and $Y$ is homeomorphic to a subspace of $X$.

See this answer and the PDF linked from it.

Brian M. Scott
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