Let $(X, \tau_1)$ and $(Y, \tau_2)$ be topological spaces. Is it true that if $X$ is homeomoprhic to a subset of $Y$ and $Y$ is homeomorphic to a subset of $X$ then $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic spaces?
I'm trying to find a counter-example cause I don't believe that the statement is correct, however I'm struggling since I don't know that many homeomorphisms. An idea I had is to prove that a subset of $\mathbb{R}$ is homeomorphic to a subset of $\mathbb{R^2}$ and the other way around but $\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R^2}$ are not homeomorphic.