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It's trivial that any sequence in a Hausdorff space converges to at most one point. What about its inverse? E.g. If a topological space have the property that any sequence in it converges to at most one point, is it a Hausdorff space?

If this is not true, a counterexample will be appreciated.

Arnaud D.
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  • Related : https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2943399/a-separation-axiom-equivalent-to-uniqueness-of-limits-of-sequences – Arnaud D. Jul 15 '20 at 12:40

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Let $X$ be an uncountable set and consider topological space $(X, \tau_{co-countable})$. Then every sequence converges to at most one point, but the space is not Hausdorff.in the cocountable topologyall convergent sequences are eventually constant, so they converge to at most one point.

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