The question is regarding the following axioms
AB$4$. If $(f_i\colon A_i\to B_i)_{i \in I}$ is a family of monomorphisms in an abelian category, then the induced $\bigoplus_{i \in I} f_i\colon \bigoplus_{i \in I} A_i\to \bigoplus_{i \in I} B_i$ is also a monomorphism.
AB$5$. In an abelian category, for a directed family $(A_i)_{i \in I}$ of subobjects of $A$ and a subobject $B$ of $A$, we have $(\sum_{i \in I} A_i)\cap B = \sum_{i \in I} (A_i\cap B)$.
I'm trying to follow the following proof from N.Popescu's book Abelian categories with applications to rings and modules:
Corollary 8.9. An AB5-category $\mathscr{C}$ is AB4.
Proof. Let $\left\{f_i: X_i^{\prime} \rightarrow X_i\right\}_{i \in I}$ be a set of monomorphisms of $\mathscr{C}$ and $$ f: \coprod_i X_i{ }^{\prime} \rightarrow \coprod_i X_i $$ the sum morphism. Let $T$ be the set of finite subsets of $I$; for any $F \in T$ we denote by $X_F{ }^{\prime}$ the canonical image of $\coprod_{j \in F} X_j{ }^{\prime}$ in $\coprod_i X_i{ }^{\prime}$. Then $\left\{X_F{ }^{\prime}\right\}_{F \in T}$ is a direct set of subobjects and $\sum_F X_F^{\prime}=\coprod_i X_i^{\prime}$. Let $K=\operatorname{ker} f$. Then $\left.K=\left(\sum_F X_F{ }^{\prime}\right) \cap K=\sum_F{ }^{\prime} \cap K\right)$. If $K \neq 0$, then $X_F{ }^{\prime} \cap K \neq 0$ for some $F$. Now, let $u_F: \coprod_{j \in F} X_j^{\prime} \rightarrow \coprod_i X_i^{\prime}$ be the canonical monomorphism. Obviously, $u_F^{-1}\left(X_F^{\prime} \cap K\right) \neq 0$. Also, let $v_F: \coprod_{j \in F} X_j \rightarrow \coprod_i X_i$ and $$ f_F: \coprod_{j \in F} X_j{ }^{\prime} \rightarrow \coprod_{j \in F} X_j $$ be canonically constructed. Then $f u_F=v_F f_F$ and $u_F^{-1}\left(X_F^{\prime} \cap K\right)=$ $\operatorname{ker}\left(f u_F\right)=\operatorname{ker}\left(v_F f_F\right)=0, v_F$ and $f_F$ being monomorphisms. This is a contradiction, hence $f$ is a monomorphism. $\square$
However, I get stuck at the end, not seeing why $v_F$ is a monomorphism. The way I understand it, if $(l_F)_i\colon X_i \to \coprod_{i \in F} X_i$ and $l_i\colon X_i\to \coprod_{i \in I} X_i$ are canonical injections, then $v_F$ is the unique morphism such that $v_F\circ (l_F)_i = l_i$ for all $i \in F$. Why would it be monic?
I understand, however, why $f_F$ is monic. It is because direct sums of finite families of monomorphisms coincides their products, hence they are monomorphisms as limits commute with limits. But this logic doesn't apply to $v_F$ since it has possibly infinite set $I$ and the colimit of the constant discrete category is not the same as the limit of the constant connected category, so we can't use the trick of reducing the universal property morphism to the morphism induced by colimits, as in connected case.