The Meyer Serrin Theorem states that the space $C^\infty(\Omega) \cap W^{m,p}(\Omega)$ is dense in $W^{m,p}(\Omega)$ where $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ is some open set and $1 \le p < \infty$. I am interested in the case when $p= \infty$, where in general the Meyer Serrin Theorem does not hold. However does the $p = \infty$ case hold under the stronger assumption $\Omega$ is bounded and of finite measure? To be more precise I would like to know if the following statement is true:
Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be a bounded open set of finite measure and $u(x)$ Lipshitz continuous (so $u \in W^{1, \infty}(\Omega)$). Then there exists a sequence of functions $u_i \in C^\infty(\Omega)$ such that $\lim_{i \to \infty} ||u_i- u||_{W^{1,\infty}(\Omega)}=0$.
It seems that this result is true as indicated in Exercise 11.31 from the book ``A first course in Sobolev spaces" by Giovanni Leoni. This exercise has been considered on stack Exchange before but I am still not convinced that the my above statement is correct. The stack exchange questions can be found at:
Use $C^\infty$ function to approximate $W^{1,\infty}$ function in finite domain
Why $C^{\infty}(\Omega) \cap W^{1, \infty}(\Omega)$ isn't dense in $W^{1, \infty}(\Omega)$?