This is the same question as this. However, my question is how to pursue the proof that the series diverges using the Theorem
Suppose $a_{m,n}\in[0,\infty]$ for each $(m,n)\in\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}$ and that $f$ is any one to one mapping of $\mathbb{N}$ onto $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}$. Then $$ \sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_{m,n} = \sum_{k=1}^\infty a_{f(k)}$$
and $f^{-1}$ as
$$ f^{-1}(m,n) = (m+n-1)(m+n)/2-(m-1). $$
The series is
$$ \sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{(m+n)^2}=\infty. $$
I tried to find an inequality that helps to prove this. For example $1/(m+n)^2>1/((m+n)^2+(m+n))$, but with this I cannot use $f$.