I think the radius of convergence for $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)x^n$, $x\in \mathbb R$ is:
$r^{-1}$=$\lim_{n\to \infty}$$|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$|=1 so we get that $r$=1.
But how can I show it formally?
After that, I have to show that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)x^n$ is uniformly convergent in the interval $[-r,r]$. Can I maybe use Weierstrass majoranttest? What can I use as majorant serie?