I am pretty sure that I have seen this inequality before but I don't remember ever seeing a proof of it, and I can't seem to prove it.
Asked
Active
Viewed 51 times
0
-
What is the “arg” on the right-hand side? Do you mean this: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/704411/42969 ? – Martin R May 26 '20 at 16:24
-
Yes! Thank you so much! – SPV May 26 '20 at 16:26
-
You need to deman $b_{i} >0$. If not, take $a_{1} = -1$, $a_{2}=1$, $b_{1}=2$ and $b_{2}=-1$. You would have $\frac{a_{1}+a_{2}}{b_{1}+b_{2}}=0$, $\frac{a_{1}}{b_{1}}=-\frac{1}{2}$ and $\frac{a_{2}}{b_{2}} = -1$. – JustWannaKnow May 26 '20 at 16:27