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Here is Prob. 7 (c), Sec. 31, in the book Topology by James R. Munkres, 2nd edition:

Let $p \colon X \rightarrow Y$ be a closed continuous surjective map such that $p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big)$ is compact for each $y \in Y$. (Such a map is called a perfect map.) Show that if $X$ is locally compact, then so is $Y$.

My Attempt:

Let $y$ be any given point of $Y$. We show that $Y$ is locally compact at $Y$.

Since $p \colon X \rightarrow Y$ is a surjective mapping and since $y \in Y$, so the inverse image set $p^{-1}\big( \{ y \} \big)$ is a non-empty subset of $X$, that is, there exists at least one point $x \in X$ such that $y = p(x)$.

Moreover, since $X$ is locally compact, therefore $X$ is locally compact at $x$ for any point $x \in p^{-1}\big( \{ y \} \big)$, and so we can find an open set $U_x$ in $X$ and a compact subspace $C_x$ of $X$ such that $$ x \in U_x \subset C_x. \tag{0} $$

Thus the collection $$ \left\{ \, U_x \, \colon \, x \in X, p(x) = y \, \right\} \tag{1} $$ is a cover of $p^{-1}\big( \{ y \} \big)$ by sets open in $X$, and since $p^{-1}\big( \{ y \} \big)$ is a compact subspace of $X$, we can find a finite subcollection of the collection in (1) above that also covers $p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big)$; let this finite subcollection be $$ \left\{ \, U_{x_1}, \ldots, U_{x_n} \, \right\}, \tag{2} $$ where $x_1, \ldots, x_n \in X$ satisfy $$ p \left( x_1 \right) = \cdots = p \left( x_n \right) = y. $$ Let us put $$ U \colon= \bigcup_{i = 1}^n U_{x_i} \qquad \mbox{ and } \qquad C \colon= \bigcup_{i = 1}^n C_{x_i}. \tag{Definition 0} $$ Then the set $U$ is an open set of $X$ containing $p^{-1}\big( \{ y \} \big)$, and the set $C$ is a compact subspace of $X$, by Prob. 3, Sec. 26, in Munkres.

Thus by (0), (1), (2), and (Definition 0) above, we have $$ p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big) \subset U \subset C. \tag{3} $$

From (3) as $$ p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big) \subset U, $$ so we have $$ X \setminus p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big) \supset X \setminus U, $$ which implies $$ p \left( X \setminus p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big) \right) \supset p \big( X \setminus U \big), $$ and hence $$ Y \setminus p \left( X \setminus p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big) \right) \subset Y \setminus p \big( X \setminus U \big), $$ that is, $$ \{ y \} \subset Y \setminus p \big( X \setminus U \big). \tag{4} $$

Here and here are two Math Stack Exchange posts of mine where I've shown that $$ Y \setminus p \left( X \setminus p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big) \right) = \{ y \}. $$

As $U$ is an open set in $X$ [Refer to (1), (2), and (Definition 0) above.], so $X \setminus U$ is closed in $X$, and as the map $p \colon X \rightarrow Y$ is a closed map, so the set $p \big( X \setminus U \big)$ is a closed set in $Y$, which implies that $Y \setminus p \big( X \setminus U \big)$ is an open set of $Y$.

Let us put $$ V \colon= Y \setminus p \big( X \setminus U \big). \tag{Definition 1} $$ Then $V$ is an open set of $Y$, and (4) gives $y \in V$.

Moreover, if $x$ is any point of $p^{-1}(V)$, then we have $x \in X$ such that $p(x) \in V$, and so $p(x) \in Y$ such that $p(x) \not\in p \big( X \setminus U \big)$, which implies that $x \not\in X \setminus U$, and hence $x \in U$. Thus it follows that $$ p^{-1}(V) \subset U, $$ and since $p \colon X \rightarrow Y$ is a surjective mapping, therefore we have $$ V = p \left( p^{-1} (V) \right) \subset p(U), $$ that is, $$ y \in V \subset p(U). \tag{5} $$

And from (3) above and the surjectivity of the map $p \colon X \rightarrow Y$ we obtain $$ \{ y \} = p \left( p^{-1} \big( \{ y \} \big) \right) \subset p(U) \subset p(C), $$ that is, $$ \{ y \} \subset p(U) \subset p(C). \tag{6} $$

Thus from (5) and (6) together we obtain $$ y \in V \subset p(U) \subset p(C), $$ and so $$ y \in V \subset p(C). \tag{7} $$

Moreover, as $C$ is a compact subspace of $X$ [Refer to the lines immediately following (Definition 0) above.] and as the map $p \colon X \rightarrow Y$ is continuous, so the image set $p(C)$ is a compact subspace of $Y$, by Theorem 26.5 in Munkres. Let us put $$ V_y \colon= V \qquad \mbox{ and } \qquad C_y \colon= p(C). \tag{Definition 2} $$

Thus we have shown that, for any point $y \in Y$, there exists an open set $V_y$ in $Y$ and a compact subspace $C_y$ of $Y$ such that $$ y \in V_y \subset C_y. $$ [Refer to (7) and (Definition 2) above.] Therefore $Y$ is locally compact at any point $y \in Y$.

Hence $Y$ is locally compact.

Is this proof correct and accurate in each and every detail? If so, is each and every step of my presentation easy enough to follow? If not, then where are the issues, if any, of correctness or clarity?

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    A general observation. You always ask at the end of your questions if your presentation was easy enough to follow and if there are any issues with clarity (assuming correctness is ok). My main comment is your explanations are at too low a level. Anyone trying to follow this could get lost in a tangle of symbols and equations and details If instead you presented this at a higher level without explaining the obvious and instead focusing on the essential ideas in words, it would make things a lot more understandable. (As an analogy, programming in a higher level language and not in assembly) – PatrickR May 24 '20 at 07:58
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    And also, many of these problems already have a solution on this site. A quick seach shows lots of questions about the same topic. So referring to previous posts and just asking for clarifications if some previous solution has some gaps is another way to go. – PatrickR May 24 '20 at 08:01

1 Answers1

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As I said before, re-use the closed map lemma in fibres for better exposition.

If $y \in Y$, $F_y:=p^{-1}[\{y\}]$ is compact and so in the locally compact $X$ it has a compact neighbourhood $C$ (just use the union of the finite subcover of the cover of compact neighbourhoods of all points of $F_y$).

So we have by the lemma on fibres then there is an open subset $U$ of $y$ such that $p^{-1}[U] \subseteq C$. But then clearly $p[C]$ is compact (the only use we use continuity of $p$) and contains $U$ and so is the required neighbourhood of $y$.

Henno Brandsma
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  • thank you so much for reading through my posts and replying to these with full-fledged answers. I'll take a careful look at your explanations and then get back to you with my feedback. I'm sorry but my mathematical study isn't so wide, nor is my mathematical ability so special. Last but not least, what is meant by the term "fibre"? Munkres hasn't used it, not at least up to this point in his book. – Saaqib Mahmood May 22 '20 at 14:31
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    A fibre is just the preimage so $p^{-1}(y)$ – Osama Ghani May 22 '20 at 14:32
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    @SaaqibMahmood A fibre of a map is the pre-image of a singleton in the co-domain. It's commonly used when discussing covering maps and perfect maps. – Henno Brandsma May 22 '20 at 14:37
  • @HennoBrandsma thanks. Can you please have a look at my post again and say if my proof has any errors in it? – Saaqib Mahmood May 22 '20 at 14:43
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    @SaaqibMahmood It's too longwinded, sorry. I only read and write short proofs. That's why I prefer lemma's. – Henno Brandsma May 22 '20 at 14:50