I try to understand the prove given here. There we need to find an open neighbourhood for all points on $\partial \overline{\Bbb B^n}= \Bbb S^{n-1}$ which is homeomorphic with an open subset in $\Bbb H^n$. He gives us this homeomorphism later as $\varphi: U_i^+ \cap \overline{\Bbb B^n} \to \Bbb H^n$. Now I don't understand, why $U_i^+ \cap \overline{\Bbb B^n}$ is an open neighbourhood of $x \in \partial \overline{\Bbb B^n}= \Bbb S^{n-1}$. Can you help me out?
1 Answers
The claim is that every $x\in\mathbb S^{n-1}$ has an open neighborhood of the form $V_i^\pm:=U_i^\pm\cap\overline{\mathbb B^n}$, where $U_i^\pm=\{x\in\mathbb R^n;\pm x_i>0\}$. (For details on notation, see the question linked in the question.) Therefore we have to check two things:
Every $x\in\mathbb S^{n-1}$ is contained in one of these sets.
These sets are open subsets of $\overline{\mathbb B^{n}}$.
Part 1: If $x\in\mathbb S^{n-1}$, then $x\neq0$ and thus $x_i\neq0$ for some $i$. If $x_i>0$, then $x_i\in V_i^+$. If $x_i<0$, then $x_i\in V_i^-$.
Part 2: These sets should be open in the relative topology of $\overline{\mathbb B^{n}}$. This is the topology inherited from the ambient space $\mathbb R^n$. Open sets in the relative topology are the sets of the form $U\cap\overline{\mathbb B^{n}}$, where $U\subset\mathbb R^n$ is open in the sense of the ambient space. (This is a definition, not a result. It might not have been stated explicitly in the linked question, but the closed ball is equipped with the relative topology, and with that topology it is a manifold.) The sets $U_i^\pm$ are open in the ambient space, so $V_i\pm$ are open in the closed ball. (They are not open subset of $\mathbb R^n$, but that is unimportant. They are open subsets of the space $\overline{\mathbb B^n}$ we are studying.) If you are studying manifolds, I hope you can convince yourself that $U_i^\pm\subset\mathbb R^n$ are indeed open.
- 26,345
-
Thank you for your good answer. Just in Part 2: I dont get, why "open sets in the relative topology are the sets of the form $U \cap \overline{\Bbb B^n}$". I mean $U$ is open in $\Bbb R^n$ and $\overline{\Bbb B^n}$ is closed in $\Bbb R^n$.. Why is their intersection now an open subset? – Peter Minford May 04 '20 at 11:36
-
@PeterMinford It is not an open subset of $\mathbb R^n$. Instead, it is open as a subset of $\overline{\mathbb B^n}$. I added some clarifications to the answer. Does it make more sense now? – Joonas Ilmavirta May 04 '20 at 11:42
-
Oh yes, now it makes sense. I was looking for a set open in $\Bbb R^n$, instead it is open with the subspace topology on $\overline{\Bbb B^n}$.. Thank you, for your help! – Peter Minford May 04 '20 at 11:47
-
@PeterMinford I'm glad to be able to help! (It seems that with this question you have earned enough reputation to vote up any questions and answers you like in addition to accepting one answer per one question of your own. Make use of this privilege and help the site decide what is good content!) – Joonas Ilmavirta May 04 '20 at 11:51