In my Commutative Algebra exercises I have the following exercise:
"Let $A = \frac{\mathbb{R}[x,y,z]}{\left\langle x^2+y^2+z^2-1 \right\rangle}$ and $M = \left\lbrace (\varphi, \chi, \eta) \in A \oplus A \oplus A : \varphi x + \chi y + \eta z =0 \right\rbrace$. Prove that M is a projective A-module but it is not a free A-module."
Seeing that it is projective is easy because $M$ is the kernel of the homomorphism $f: A \oplus A \oplus A \rightarrow A$ sending $(\varphi, \chi, \eta)$ to $\varphi x + \chi y + \eta z$. $f$ is surjective because $1=f(x,y,z)$ and so the sequence $$0 \rightarrow M \rightarrow A \oplus A \oplus A \rightarrow A \rightarrow 0$$is exact, but $A$ is a projective $A$-module so the sequence splits and $A \oplus A \oplus A \cong M \oplus A$. Hence M is projective.
However, I can't figure out how to prove that its not free. I get the idea that $M$ something like the algebraic tangent bundle of the sphere and we know from algebraic topology that the tangent bundle of the sphere is not trivial and since trivial bundle <-> globally free bundle, M shouldn't be free.
Even though I look for a commutative algebra-proof of the fact, any insights to the questions are welcome.