Is it possible to prove Gödel’s 1st Incompleteness theorem without the use of self referential statements

Asked Apr 13 '20 at 16:52

Active Apr 13 '20 at 16:54

Viewed 42 times

Is it possible to prove Gödel’s 1st Incompleteness theorem without the use of self referential statements?

I have searched for various proofs of the first incompleteness theorem and all of them use some sort of self-reference or the other(usually indirectly however). Is this the only way to prove it?

edited Apr 13 '20 at 16:54

Noah Schweber

260,658

asked Apr 13 '20 at 16:52

David Okogbenin

Not sure if reduction would be an alternative. – Wuestenfux Apr 13 '20 at 16:57
Sorry I’m a high school student(so I’m not very clear on this). What do you mean by reduction? – David Okogbenin Apr 13 '20 at 16:59
This is a fine question, but has been asked before. – Noah Schweber Apr 13 '20 at 17:20
Oh, no problem at all – David Okogbenin Apr 13 '20 at 17:32

Is it possible to prove Gödel’s 1st Incompleteness theorem without the use of self referential statements

0 Answers0