I meet an exercise in my homework: Let $f\in \mathcal{D}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $g\in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, show that the biliner map $(f,g)\mapsto f*g $ is continuous in $f$ and $g$, respectively.
I have proved that for any fixed $f\in \mathcal{D}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$, if $g_{i}\in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ such that $g_{i}\to 0$ in $\mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, then $f*g_{i}\to 0$ in $\mathcal{E}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, but I don't know how to prove that for any fixd $g\in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $f_{i}\to 0$ in $\mathcal{D'}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ then $f_{i}*g\to 0$ in $\mathcal{E}(\mathbb{R}^n)$. Is this conclusion correct?
Here is my approach: To prove $f_{i}*g\to 0$ in $\mathcal{E}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, we need to show that, for any compact set $K\subset \mathbb{R}^n$, and any multi-index $\alpha$, $$\sup_{x\in K}|\partial^{\alpha}(f_{i}\ast g)|=\sup_{x\in K}|f_{i}\ast \partial^{\alpha}g| =\sup_{x\in K}|\langle f_{i}(y),\partial_{x}^{\alpha}g(x-y)\rangle|\to 0$$ holds for fixed $g\in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ as $i\to +\infty$. But we only have $f_{i}\to 0$ in $\mathcal{D}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$, it seems we can only show that, for any fixed $x\in K$, $$ |\langle f_{i}(y),\partial_{x}^{\alpha}g(x-y)\rangle|\to 0$$ for $i\to +\infty$.
Can someone help me with the question above? Thank you very much!