$n\equiv n' \pmod 2$ implies $f(n) \equiv f(n') \pmod 2$. So the condition is $f(0) \equiv f(1) \equiv 0 \pmod 2$.
Consider an arbitrary polynomial $f(x)$ and divide by $x(x-1)$ with remainder. We get
$$f(x) = x(x-1) q(x) + a x + b$$
Now $f(0) = b$ and $f(1) = a+b$. Therefore $f$ is in the ideal if and only if $a \equiv b \equiv 0 \pmod 2$.
We conclude $I = (x(x-1),2)$
A similar proof shows that if $p$ is prime the ideal
$$I_p= \{ f \in \mathbb{Z}[x]\ | \ f(\mathbb{Z})\subset p \mathbb{Z}\}$$
is generated by $x(x-1)\ldots (x-p+1)$ and $p$. This implies in particular (use Fermat's little theorem ) that the polynomial
$(x^p-x)- x(x-1)\ldots (x-p+1)$ has all the coefficients divisible by $p$. For instance $(x^5 - x)- x(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)=5 x (x - 1) (2 x^2 - 5 x + 5)$.
Note that if $p$ is not prime, the ideal $I_p$ may not be generated by $x(x-1)\ldots (x-p+1)$ and $p$. For instance, $x(x-1)(x-2)$ is in $I_6$.
Note that every ideal of $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is finitely generated, that is,
$\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is noetherian.