Finding an antiderivative is a non-starter, but there are a lot of levers to work with in an integral like this.
First idea: a series. $\frac1{e^x+1}=e^{-x}-e^{-2x}+e^{-3x}-e^{-4x}+\cdots$ for $x>0$. We have to be careful with the behavior near zero, and then we need $\int_0^{\infty} e^{-nx}\ln x\,dx$, which again requires careful treatment near zero... I might revisit this, but forging ahead as we are now looks like a bad idea.
Second idea : complex analysis. We want to close this to a contour... there's a singularity at zero, cut an arc around that... the numerator is predictable on rays from the origin, and the denominator is predictable on (some) rays parallel to the $x$-axis. No, those don't line up; this looks unproductive.
Third idea: introduce another variable. Specifically, something to kill that logarithm: $\ln x$ is the derivative of $x^t$ (with respect to $t$) at $t=0$...
Let $I(t)=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{x^t}{e^x+1}\,dx$. We want to find $I'(0)$.
\begin{align*}I(t) &= \int_0^{\infty}\frac{x^t}{e^x+1}\,dx\\
&= \int_0^{\infty}x^t\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{n-1} e^{-nx}\,dx\\
&= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\int_0^{\infty} x^t e^{-nx}\,dx\\
&= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\int_0^{\infty} \left(\frac{y}{n}\right)^t e^{-y}\cdot\frac1n\,dy\\
&= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^{t+1}}\int_0^{\infty} y^t e^{-y}\,dy\\
I(t) &= \Gamma(t+1)\cdot (1-2^{-t})\cdot\zeta(t+1)\end{align*}That's the formula Tolaso quoted, in slightly different terms. The point we're interested in is a removable singularity (removed in the $\eta$ formulation), and the manipulations need some justification, but there it is. Differentiating that? As $t\to 0^+$, $(1-2^{-t})\approx \ln 2\cdot t-\frac{\ln^2 2}{2}\cdot t^2$, $\zeta(t+1)\approx \frac1t+\gamma$, and $\Gamma(t+1)$ is ... something I don't know off the top of my head, and can't look up quickly. I only know the second term for the zeta function because I worked it up for an old thread.
There really should be a better way here.
OK, what else can we do with the pieces here? Trying the old standby $\ln x=\int_1^x \frac1y\,dy$ leads to an indirect version of integration by parts, at least if we leave the triangular domains alone (and I don't see a reasonable alternative). Not really productive, especially as it makes the singularity at zero harder to handle. Trying to write that denominator as an integral? No. Just no.
That leaves - going back to that series we started with. It helps a little to pair off the terms; $\frac1{e^x+1}=\frac{e^{-x}-e^{-2x}}{1-e^{-2x}}=(e^{-x}-e^{-2x})+(e^{-3x}-e^{-4x})+\cdots$, and we can avoid convergence issues by treating it all as a series of positive terms. The integral we seek is
\begin{align*}S &= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\ln x}{e^x+1}\,dx\\
&= \int_0^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \ln x\left(e^{-(2n-1)x}-e^{2nx}\right)\,dx\\
&= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \int_0^{\infty} \ln x\cdot e^{-(2n-1)x} - \ln x\cdot e^{2nx}\,dx\\
&= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} J(2n-1)-J(2n)\end{align*}Now, we need $J(s)=\int_0^{\infty} e^{-sx}\ln x\,dx$. Substitute $y=sx$; the integral becomes $J(s)=\frac1s\int_0^{\infty}e^{-y}(\ln y-\ln s)\,dy=\frac{-\ln s}{s}+\frac1s\int_0^{\infty} e^{-y}\ln y\,dy=\frac{J(1)}{s}-\frac{\ln s}{s}.$ Continuing the previous calculation,
\begin{align*}S &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} J(2n-1)-J(2n)\\
&= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{J(1)}{2n-1}-\frac{J(1)}{2n}-\frac{\ln(2n-1)}{2n-1}+\frac{\ln(2n)}{2n}\\
&= \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{m-1}\frac{J(m)}{m} +(-1)^m\frac{\ln m}{m}\\
&= J(1)\ln 2+\sum_{m=2}^{\infty}(-1)^m\frac{\ln m}{m}\end{align*}That second sum is $\gamma\ln 2-\frac{\ln^2 2}{2}$, as I calculated in this thread long ago. Now what about $J(1)=\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x}\ln(x)\,dx$? Oh right, that's the derivative of $\Gamma$ at $1$. Getting to that... I've spent enough hours on this already. Let's do something crazy:
For any nonnegative $n$, $\int_0^1 (1-x)^n\ln x\,dx=\frac{-1}{n+1}H_{n+1}$, where $H_{n+1}$ is the harmonic number $1+\frac12+\frac13+\cdots+\frac1{n+1}$. Exactly. I'm not willing to go looking for the clever combinatorics right now, so take my word for it. What does this have to do with anything? For large $n$, $e^{-nx}\approx\begin{cases}(1-x)^n&0\le x\le 1\\0&x\ge 1\end{cases}.$ More specifically, $0\le (1-x)^n\le e^{-nx}$ on the unit interval, so $$\frac{-1}{n+1}H_{n+1}=\int_0^1 (1-x)^n\ln x\,dx\ge \int_0^1 e^{-nx}\ln x\,dx=J(n)-\int_1^{\infty} e^{-nx}\ln x\,dx\ge J(n)-2e^{-n}$$ (estimating that last with $\ln x<x$). On the other side, since $\frac{n+1}{n}\int_0^1 (1-x)^n\,dx=\frac1n=\int_0^{\infty} e^{-nx}\,dx$ and $(1-x)^n\cdot e^{nx}$ is decreasing, $\int_0^a \frac{n+1}{n}(1-x)^n\,dx\ge \int_0^a e^{-nx}\,dx$ for any $a\in[0,1]$; integrating by parts, $\int_0^1 \frac{n+1}{n}(1-x)^n\cdot f(x)\le \int_0^1 e^{-nx}\cdot f(x)\,dx$ for any increasing $f$. Applying this to $f(x)=\ln x$, we have $$-\frac1n H_{n+1}=\int_0^1 \frac{n+1}{n}(1-x)^n\ln x\,dx\le \int_0^1 e^{-nx}\ln x\,dx\le \int_0^{\infty} e^{-nx}\ln x\,dx=J(n)$$ Putting that on one line, $$\frac{-1}{n} H_{n+1}\le J(n)=\frac1n(J(1)-\ln n)\le \frac{-1}{n+1}H_{n+1}+2e^{-n}$$ From the lower bound, as $n\to\infty$, $J(1)\ge \ln n-H_{n+1}\to-\gamma$. From the upper bound, as $n\to\infty$, $(n+1)J(n)\le -H_{n+1}+2(n+1)e^{-n}$ and $J(1)\le \ln n-H_{n+1}+J(n)+2(n+1)e^{-n}\to-\gamma$. By the squeeze, $J(1)=-\gamma$. Finally.
Going back to the integral $S$ we wanted to find in the first place, $S=J(1)\ln 2+\sum_{m=2}^{\infty}(-1)^m\frac{\ln m}{m}=-\gamma\ln 2 +\gamma\ln 2-\frac{\ln^2 2}{2}=-\frac{\ln^2 2}{2}.$
All right, there's what I can say. It's messy, partly stream-of-consciousness, and way longer than I expected to write. I hope it's informative, in whatever way that might be.