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This is the problem. I tried doing this using this property but its not working. Can someone help me on this? Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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    Similar questions have been asked before: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2000408/union-of-connected-sets-also-connected has correct answers to a slight generalisation of your question. – Rob Arthan Mar 10 '20 at 22:13

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Suppose $\bigcup \mathcal{C}= U \cup V$ where $U,V$ are separated subsets.

Suppose WLOG $x \in U$. Then for each $C \in \mathcal{C}$ we know

$$C=(C \cap U) \cup (C \cap V)$$ and these right hand sets are also separated (as subsets of $U$ and $V$ resp.) $x \in U \cap C$ by assumption so the $C \cap V = \emptyset$ or $C$ would be disconnected, which it is not. It follows that $C \subseteq U$.

As $C$ was arbitrary in $\mathcal{C}$, $\bigcup \mathcal{C} \subseteq U$ and $V$ is empty, and so $\bigcup \mathcal{C}$ is connected.

Henno Brandsma
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