Say $p$ is an odd prime number, $k$ a positive integer and $p^{\gamma + 1} || k$. I would like to prove the following result:
If $y \in \mathbf{Z}$ is a $k$-th power modulo $p^\gamma$, then it is also a $k$-th power modulo $p^t$ for any $t \geqslant \gamma$.
I don't know how standard this fact is. Stated like this, it seems to be a rather simple fact. However, I do not find any simple proof for this fact, and I try to write below the only thing I have in mind to justify it properly. Any comment on the proof or any proposal for a more elegant argument is welcome.
The proof is essentially working on rephrasing the sentence "$y$ is a $k$-th power modulo $n$".
Let $n = p^\gamma$ in this paragraph. Since $p\geqslant 3$, we know that $(\mathbf{Z}/n\mathbf{Z})^\times$ is cyclic, say generated by the element $x$. Thus, the element $y \in (\mathbf{Z}/n\mathbf{Z})^\times = \langle x \rangle$ can be written $y=x^a$ for a certain $a \geqslant 0$. Moreover, we assumed that $y$ is a $k$-th power modulo $p^\gamma$, that is to say $y = (x^b)^k = x^{kb}$ for a certain $b \geqslant 0$. So that we get $x^a = x^{kb}$, that is finally $x^{a-kb} = 1$. That is possible if and only if $\phi(n) \mid a - kb$. By Bezout identity, this is equivalent to $(\phi(n), k) \mid a$.
Assume $n = p^t$ for a certain $t\geqslant \gamma$. We have $\phi(n) = p^{t-1}(p-1)$ and $(\mathbf{Z}/p^t \mathbf{Z})^\times = \langle x \rangle$ for a certain $x \in \mathbf{Z}/p^t\mathbf{Z}$. Finally, $y=x^a$ is a $k$-th power if and only if $(p^{t-1}(p-1), k) \mid a$. By definition, $p^{\gamma - 1} \mid k$, so that we also have \begin{equation} (p^{t-1}(p-1), k) \mid a \Longleftrightarrow (p^{t-\gamma}(p-1), kp^{1-\gamma}) \mid a p^{1-\gamma}. \end{equation}
Assume $n = p^\gamma$. We have $\phi(n) = p^{\gamma-1}(p-1)$ and $(\mathbf{Z}/p^\gamma \mathbf{Z})^\times = \langle x^{p^{t-\gamma}} \rangle$ for a certain $x \in \mathbf{Z}/p^t\mathbf{Z}$. Thus, $y=x^{ap^{t-\gamma}}$ is a $k$-th power if and only if $(p^{\gamma-1}(p-1), k) \mid a p^{t}$ so that \begin{equation} (p^{\gamma-1}(p-1), k) \mid ap^{t-\gamma} \Longleftrightarrow (p-1, kp^{1-\gamma}) \mid ap^{1-\gamma}. \end{equation}
Finally, for all $t \geqslant \gamma$, I would like to say that the first relation is implied by the second, so that any $k$-th power modulo $p^\gamma$ is also a $k$-th power modulo $p^t$.
Thanks in advance!
This questions comes from my misunderstanding of the following statement, from Vaughan:
