I've also noticed as in the question here that it seems that many references I've read say "discharging an assumption" and assume the reader that we know what that means. It's funny because formal logic has very clear definitions of everything.
Regardless, I think my confusion stems from many things. I will try to outline them:
- To understand what "discharging as assumption" means, I have to understand what the word assumption means. Does it mean axiom or hypothesis or something else? The closest thing to a definition (even if its informal since thats a start) is that it's a "local axiom". Something that we assume true for the sake of a subproof. But eventually, it has to be shown true or otherwise whats the point!
- I need to know what discharging means. Looking at the answer that I referenced from mathoverflow it seems that it has a relation with the deduction theorem from metalogic. Let's recall it: $$ T, P \vdash Q \text{ iff } T \vdash P \to Q $$ However, it's weird to me because it seems that the role of discharging is nearly the same as "establishing what has a proof already". However, when I write the statement $P \to Q$ I think of it as an implication, so I don't assume that $P$ is already true. It also doesn't tell me how it relates to the axioms.
Idk if I'm confused because I am more used to thinking of starting from the axioms then we can reach statements and that is the only thing that is true. But here things seem to be a little different. Can anyone clarify what is going on? At the very least precise statements of what "discharing an assumption" and "assumptions" mean would be a fantastic start since I precise definition of those are not explicitly found (mostly implied) from what I've read.
In addition, I heard the following comment about discharge:
Discharge function maps each leaf of the tree to an ancestor as allowed by the inference rules.
which isn't 100% clear to me what it meant.
Cross-posted: