I have read in my course notes the following statement :
Let $p : X \longrightarrow Y$ be a holomorphic map between two complex manifolds. If $Y$ is a Kähler manifold then $\forall y\in Y$, $p^{-1}(y)$ is a Kähler manifold.
It is very vague, and assumptions are probably missing. I am trying to see when this might be true and what assumptions on $p$, $Y$ and $X$ should be added. For instance, it is clear that we should also require $p$ non constant.
First problem : $p^{-1}(y)$ isn't a submanifold of $X$ a priori. One case where it works, is when $X$ is a holomorphic fibre bundle on $Y$, but can we take something weaker ?
Second problem : Suppose now we have the first problem settled and every fibre is a complex submanifold of $X$. Since the Kähler metric we would like to put on $p^{-1}(y)$ for all $y \in Y$ is the pullback of the one on $Y$, shouldn't we also require for $p$ to be an immersion?
Thanks in advance for your answers!